Test 3 -Project Management
Chapter 14
1) Overall,
which are the most common STIs in Canada?
a. chlamydia
and HIV
b. chlamydia
and gonorrhea
c. human
papillomavirus and genital herpes
d. human
papillomavirus and gonorrhea.
Answer: c
2) Of the
reportable bacterial STIs in Canada, the most common is
a. syphilis.
b. HIV.
c. gonorrhea.
d. chlamydia.
Answer: d
3) How many
people in the world are estimated by the World Health Organization to be
infected with an STI each year?
a. 112 million
b. 67 million
c. 340 million
d. 692 million
Answer: c
4) Which of the
following is not one of the factors
that may have contributed to the increase in the reported rate of chlamydia in
recent years in Canada?
a. an increase
in the number of people being tested
b. an increase
in the number of gonorrhea cases misdiagnosed as chlamydia
c. more
sensitive tests being used
d. an increase
in the number of people who were infected
Answer: b
5)
Approximately what percentage of chlamydia infections among men does not have
symptoms?
a. less than
15%
b. less than
30%
c. up to 50%
d. up to 70%
Answer: c
6)
Approximately what percentage of chlamydia infections in women has no symptoms?
a. less than
15%
b. less than
30%
c. up to 50%
d. up to 70%
Answer: d
7) If left
untreated, a woman’s chlamydia infection can result in
a. HPV.
b. PID.
c. SID.
d. HSV.
Answer: b
8) Which of the
following statements regarding the treatment of chlamydia is accurate?
a. It is not a
treatable infection.
b. It is
treatable but the underlying infection cannot be cured.
c. Treatment
involves a lengthy course of anti-viral medication.
d. It is
effectively treated with antibiotics.
Answer: d
9) Marcia has
just learned from her gynecologist that she has a chlamydia infection. He
advises her to immediately begin antibiotic therapy. Marcia learns that,
without treatment, she runs an increased risk of
a. cervical
cancer.
b. uterine
cancer.
c. kidney
damage.
d. infertility.
Answer: d
10) A man who
experiences a discharge from his penis that is clear at first but then becomes
yellow to yellow-green within a couple of days is likely to have
a. chlamydia or
gonorrhea.
b. chlamydia or
syphilis.
c. gonorrhea or
HPV.
d. gonorrhea or
syphilis.
Answer: a
11) In nearly
half of the cases of gonorrhea, individuals were also infected with
a. herpes.
b. chlamydia.
c. hepatitis B.
d. HIV.
Answer: b
12) What is the
chance that a woman will contract gonorrhea after being exposed once by having
sex with an infected partner?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 40%
d. 50%
Answer: d
13) What is the
chance that a man will contract gonorrhea after being exposed once by having
sex with an infected partner?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 40%
d. 50%
Answer: b
14) The primary
site of gonorrhea infection in women is the
a. cervix.
b. labia.
c. fallopian
tubes.
d. endometrial
lining.
Answer: a
15) If left
untreated, gonorrhea in women may result in
a. HPV.
b. SID.
c. PID.
d. HSV.
Answer: c
16) In men,
gonorrhea may lead to __________, which can cause fertility problems.
a. epidymitis
b. pelvic
inflammatory disease
c. prodromal symptoms
d. cervicitis
Answer: a
17) Pharyngeal
gonorrhea is characterized by
a. a
yellow-green pus at the tip of the penis.
b. a persistent
sore throat and throat infection.
c. swelling and
inflammation of the cervix.
d. eye problems
that could lead to blindness.
Answer: b
18) Because of
resistant strains, the recommended antibiotic for treating gonorrhea is
a. ceftriaxone.
b. penicillin.
c. doxycycline.
d.
erythromycin.
Answer: a
19) Which of
the following statements regarding the treatment of gonorrhea is accurate?
a. It is not a
treatable infection.
b. It is
treatable, but the underlying infection cannot be cured.
c. Treatment
involves a lengthy course of anti-viral medication.
d. It is
effectively treated with antibiotics.
Answer: d
20) The bacterium
that causes syphilis is
a. ureaplasma
urealyticum.
b. trichmonas
vaginalis.
c. treponema
pallidum.
d. S. sarcoptes.
Answer: c
21) Syphilis
can be transmitted in all of the following ways except
a. oral-genital
contact.
b. using the
same toilet seat as an infected person.
c. touching a
chancre.
d. anal
intercourse.
Answer: b
22) Glen woke
up this morning with a skin rash consisting of painless, red bumps over most of
his body. He is running a slight temperature. At first he thought it was simply
the flu, but then he remembered that he had seen a spot similar to those on his
body but larger on his penis several months earlier. Glen’s symptoms would be
characteristic of
a. secondary
stage syphilis.
b. primary
stage syphilis.
c. latency
stage syphilis.
d. tertiary
stage syphilis.
Answer: a
23) In a
syphilis infection, a chancre usually heals in a few
a. hours.
b. days.
c. weeks.
d. months.
Answer: c
24) Which
statement is true about latent stage
syphilis?
a. The latent
stage is marked by periodic outbreaks of chancres.
b. A person can
be in the latent stage from 1 to 40 years.
c. In the
latent stage, a mother cannot transmit syphilis to her child during delivery.
d. Spirochetes
stop multiplying.
Answer: b
25) The
treatment of choice for syphilis is
a. a dose of T. pallidum antibodies.
b. ciprofloxacin.
c. penicillin.
d. doxycycline.
Answer: c
26) The most
common symptom for women with vaginitis is
a. genital
irritation.
b. itching and
burning during urination.
c. inflammation.
d. odorous discharge.
Answer: d
27) Bacterial
vaginosis is most often caused by
a. candida albicans.
b. gardnerella
vaginalis.
c. trichomoniasis vaginalis.
d. molluscum contagiosum.
Answer: b
28) Which is not another term for candidiasis?
a. thrush
b. moniliasis
c. vaginosis
d. yeast
infection
Answer: c
29) Areez is
seeing her gynecologist because she is experiencing itching, burning, and
inflammation of the labia. In addition, she has noticed a white, thick,
curd-like discharge. Areez’s symptoms are characteristic of
a. a
gardnerella infection.
b. a
trichomonal infection.
c. a candida
infection.
d. a gonorrheal
infection.
Answer: c
30) How many
Canadian women will experience at least one yeast infection in their lifetime?
a. 15%
b. 30%
c. 60%
d. 75%
Answer: d
31) What
percentage of Canadian women will have at least one episode of candidiasis
during their lifetime?
a. 25%
b. 45%
c. 75%
d. 95%
Answer: c
32) Trichomonas vaginalis is a
a. bacteria.
b. parasite.
c. virus.
d. fungus.
Answer: b
33) Kendra
complains of burning and itching in the vulva. In addition, she has noticed a
foamy, whitish to yellow-green discharge. Which STI has Kendra contracted?
a. gardnerella
b.
trichomoniasis
c. herpes
d. chlamydia
Answer: b
34) Of the
following STIs, which can be transmitted through infected semen or vaginal
discharges on towels, washcloths, bedclothes, and toilet seats?
a. candidiasis
b. gonorrhea
c. syphilis
d.
trichomoniasis
Answer: d
35) Which of
the following is not a bacterial STI?
a. syphilis
b. trichomoniasis
c. chlamydia
d. gonorrhea
Answer: b
36) What are
viruses?
a. bacterial
agents
b. tiny
particles of DNA surrounded by a protein coating
c. particles
that respond to antibodies in the blood stream
d. genetic
mutations that enter the body through the skin or blood stream
Answer: b
37) The
majority of people with HIV live in countries
a. in the
northern hemisphere.
b. with higher
than average numbers of gay males in the population.
c. that are
low- or middle-income.
d. that are
middle- or high-income.
Answer: c
38) In Africa,
most new HIV infections are transmitted through
a. men having
sex with men.
b. heterosexual
sex.
c. contaminated
needles.
d. blood
transfusions.
Answer: b
39) It is
estimated that ______ of people in Canada with HIV are unaware that they are
infected.
a. 6%
b. 16%
c. 26%
d. 46%
Answer: c
40) In the
years just prior to 1997, women accounted for about 7% of AIDS cases in Canada.
By 2008, women accounted for about _____ of AIDS cases.
a. 14%
b. 24%
c. 34%
d. 44%
Answer: b
41) Among First
Nations people, the most common means of HIV transmission is/are
a. contaminated
blood products.
b. men who have
sex with men.
c. mother to
child transmission.
d. injection
drug use.
Answer: d
42) In 2008,
what percentage of HIV-positive test reports was from men who have sex with
men?
a. 45%
b. 65%
c. 85%
d. 95%
Answer: a
43) HIV
directly attacks the immune system by invading and destroying a type of
lymphocyte called the
a. reverse transcriptase.
b. B cell.
c. CD4 cell.
d. antibodies.
Answer: c
44) Shortly
after infection with the HIV virus, individuals will
a. have no
symptoms.
b. begin to
have night sweats and chronic diarrhea.
c. experience a
slow decline in circulating antibody cells.
d. have
flu-like symptoms that last for a few weeks, then disappear.
Answer: d
45) Which is
not a disease connected with AIDS?
a. pneumonia
b.
cryptorchidism
c. Kaposi’s
sarcoma
d.
toxoplasmosis of the brain
Answer: b
46)
Female-to-male HIV transmission through vaginal intercourse is _________
compared to male-to-female transmission through vaginal intercourse.
a. equally
likely
b. less likely
c. slightly
more likely
d. much more
likely
Answer: b
47) Worldwide,
the main route of transmission for HIV is
a. heterosexual
sex.
b. through blood
and blood products.
c. through
shared needles.
d. homosexual
sex.
Answer: a
48) Which is not a bodily fluid that can transmit
HIV?
a. blood
b. breast milk
c. vaginal
secretions
d. saliva
Answer: d
49) In testing
for HIV, an ELISA test detects
a. the number
of CD4 cells circulating in the blood.
b. the amount
of virus circulating in the blood.
c. the amount
of virus in semen or vaginal fluids.
d. the presence
of antibodies to HIV in the blood.
Answer: d
50) Highly
active antiretroviral therapy for HIV/AIDS includes
a. Cervarix.
b. protease
inhibitor.
c. enzyme-linked antigen.
d. ELISA.
Answer: b
51) Canadian
researchers have found that HAART
a. reduces the
risk of HIV transmission.
b. increases
the risk of HIV transmission for men who have sex with men.
c. has no
effect on HIV transmission.
d. increases
the risk of HIV transmission for people who have other STIs.
Answer: a
52) The
approximate percentage of genital herpes infections that are asymptomatic is
a. 40%.
b. 60%.
c. 80%.
d. 98%.
Answer: b
53) Which
variants of the herpes virus can be transmitted through sexual contact?
a. HSV 1, 2,
and 3
b. HSV 1 and 2
c. HSV 2 and 3
d. HSV 2
Answer: b
54) In regard
to transmission of the herpes virus, which statement is false?
a. Genital
herpes can only be spread to others during an outbreak.
b. HSV-1 is
easily transmitted through shared drinking glasses.
c. The herpes
viruses can survive for several hours on toilet seats or other objects.
d. Herpes can
be spread from one part of the body to another.
Answer: a
55) Which of
the following statements about HSV-2 and condom use is most accurate?
a. Condoms do
not offer any protection against HSV-2 transmission.
b. Consistent
condom use reduces the risk of HSV-2 transmission but is not effective for lesions
not covered by the condom.
c. People who
use condoms consistently do not need to be concerned about HSV-2.
d. Condoms only
reduce the risk of HSV-2 transmission when a person is having an outbreak.
Answer: b
56) With
respect to the treatment of genital herpes, which of the following statements
is false?
a. There are no
treatments available that can lessen the symptoms of herpes.
b. Warm bathes
and aspirin may reduce pain during flare-ups.
c. Antibiotics
are not effective in treating herpes.
d. Antiviral
medications can reduce the frequency and duration of outbreaks.
Answer: a
57) With
respect to the psychological and social impact of herpes, which of the
following statements is false?
a. People who
view their infection as a manageable condition rather than as a medical
calamity will have an easier time adjusting.
b. The
psychological impact of herpes can be more distressing than its physical
effects.
c. People with
herpes are generally unable to establish and maintain intimate relationships.
d. Unattached
people with herpes can be advised to look for partners who are trusting and
caring.
Answer: c
58) What is
hepatitis?
a. inflammation
of the liver
b. inflammation
of the large intestines
c. inflammation
of the small intestines
d. inflammation
of the pituitary gland
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference:
394
Skill: Recall
59) Which is
not a symptom of people with acute hepatitis?
a. jaundice
b. nausea
c. loss of
appetite
d. genital
lesions
Answer: d
60) Which type
of hepatitis is associated with contaminated food but can also be transmitted
through oral-anal contact?
a. hepatitis D
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis A
d. hepatitis C
Answer: c
61) Which is true regarding transmission of
hepatitis?
a. Hepatitis A
can be transmitted through vaginal intercourse, fellatio, or cunnilingus.
b. Hepatitis C
is transmitted through contact with infected fecal matter.
c. Hepatitis D
can be transmitted by contact with contaminated saliva.
d. Hepatitis B
can be transmitted sexually, or through contaminated blood, menstrual blood,
nasal secretions, or personal items like toothbrushes.
Answer: d
62) The world’s
most common sexually transmitted infection is
a. HPV.
b. chlamydia.
c. gonorrhea.
d. HSV.
Answer: a
63) Which of
the following statements about HPV infection is false?
a. It is
estimated that up to 70% of Canadians will have an HPV infection in their
lifetime.
b. Up to 90% of
HPV infections will clear within two years.
c. Similar to
HSV, HPV is considered to be a lifelong infection.
d. HPV types 16
and 18, which are responsible for most cases of cervical cancer, do not cause
genital warts.
Answer: c
64) Which of
the following statements about HPV is false?
a. Sexual
intercourse is a common means of HPV transmission.
b. The Gardasil
vaccine protects against cervical cancer but not against genital warts.
c. Consistent
condom use reduces the risk of HPV infection.
d. HPV types 6
and 11 cause genital warts.
Answer: b
65) Which of
the following statements about genital warts is true?
a. Removing
genital warts eliminates the virus from the body.
b. A person
infected with HPV types 6 or 11 will develop genital warts within a few weeks.
c. Although
genital warts may recur after treatment they eventually will clear up.
d. Warts caused
by HPV only infect the genital area.
Answer: c
66) HPV has
been associated with an increased risk of
a. cervical and
penile cancer.
b. pelvic
inflammatory disease and infertility.
c. ovarian and
prostate cancer.
d. pelvic inflammatory
disease and testicular cancer.
Answer: a
67) Which is not true about pediculosis?
a. It is also
called “crabs.”
b. It causes
itching.
c. It can be
transmitted only through intercourse.
d. It can be
treated with a prescription medication, a 1% solution of lindane.
Answer: c
68) Joe is
suffering from intense itching in the pubic region. He notices that there are
tiny red lines on his groin and a few areas that look like welts. What has Joe
contracted?
a.
trichomoniasis
b. scabies
c. molluscum
contagiosum
d. pubic lice
Answer: b
69) Which of
the following is not a biological
factor involved in the epidemiology of STIs?
a. gender
b. asymptomatic
cases
c. alcohol and
drug abuse
d. lifelong
infections
Answer: c
70) A study by
Klein and Knauper (2003) found that some young people are less likely to use
condoms because they
a. are
paralyzed by fear of STIs.
b.
underestimate the effectiveness of condoms in preventing STIs.
c. do not know
how to use condoms properly.
d. purposely
avoid thinking about STIs.
Answer: d
71) Among
sexually active women, condom use
a. is more
common among 20- to 24-year-olds than among 15- to 19-year-olds.
b. is more
common among 15- to 19-year-olds than among 20- to 24-year-olds.
c. is equally
common among 15- to 19- and 20- to 24-year-olds.
d. more common
among 30- to 39-year-olds than among 15- to 19-year-olds.
Answer: b
72) Which of
the following was not a reason given
for not using condoms by gay and bisexual men participating in an Ontario
study?
a. belief that
condoms are not effective in preventing HIV
b. fear of
erection loss with condom use
c. being in a
trusting relationship
d. low
self-esteem
Answer: a
73) Which of
the following statements concerning the STI risk of oral sex is most accurate?
a. Oral sex
carries no risk of STI infection.
b. Oral sex is
higher risk for STI transmission than intercourse.
c. Oral sex and
intercourse carry an equal risk for HIV infection.
d. Oral sex
carries a lower risk for HIV and some STIs than intercourse, but risk is not
eliminated.
Answer: d
74) Which of
the following is not a reason
identified in the literature reviewed in the textbook for why some women are at
high risk for STI?
a. Women who
love their partners are less likely to believe that they will contract an STI.
b. Women tend
to be less concerned about STI than men.
c. Women who
have abusive partners are less able to protect themselves from STI.
d. Women are
more biologically susceptible to STI than men.
Answer: b
75) The IMB
model for risk reduction involves
a. information,
monogamy, behavioural skills.
b. injection
drugs, multiple partners, bias.
c. information,
motivation, behavioural skills.
d. identity,
monogamy, biological susceptibility
Answer: c
76) A 2006
Public Health Agency of Canada study found that over half of Canadians
a. were unaware
of the connection between HIV and AIDS.
b. had low or
moderate levels of knowledge about HIV/AIDS.
c. had high
levels of knowledge about HIV/AIDS.
d. had either
very low or very high levels of knowledge about HIV/AIDS.
Answer: b
77) During his
four years at university Steve had three monogamous relationships in which he
and his partner stopped using condoms only after they were together for a few
weeks and Steve was certain that his partner was only having sex with him.
During the same time period, Sanjay had four hook-ups where condoms were used
with partners that he had never met before. Based on what we know about them,
which statement about Steve and Sanjay’s STI risk is most accurate?
a. Steve and
Sanjay are at roughly equal risk for STI.
b. We do not
have enough information to compare Steve and Sanjay’s risk for STI.
c. Steve is at
higher risk for STI than Sanjay.
d. Sanjay is at
higher risk for STI than Steve.
Answer: c
78) Which of
the following is unlikely to be accounted for in a rational decision-making
model of STI risk-taking?
a. a person
deciding not to use condoms because they have determined that their STI risk is
low
b. a person
agreeing to have unprotected sex because they don’t want to lose their partner
c. a committed
monogamous couple switching to oral contraception after two years together and
getting HIV and other STI tests
d. after taking
a sexuality course, a person deciding to use condoms more consistently
Answer: b
79) Men who
have sex with men but who self-identify as heterosexual
a. use condoms
less than men who only have sex with women.
b. use condoms
less than men who identify as gay.
c. use condoms
more than men who identify as gay.
d. use condoms
equally as much as men who identify as gay.
Answer: b
80) For each of the following, match the
symptoms or description of the STI with the correct organism.
81) In Canada,
there are no national statistics available on the prevalence of genital herpes.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
82) Of the STIs
for which cases are reported, chlamydia is the most common.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
83) During the
latent stage, syphilis can lie dormant for up to five years.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
84) Syphilis
requires antiviral medications to be cured.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
85) About a
quarter of people with HIV in Canada are unaware that they are infected.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
86) People who
are HIV-positive but have no symptoms are unlikely to transmit the virus to
others.
a. True
b. False Answer: b
87) Antibiotics
other than penicillin are highly effective in eradicating chlamydia infections.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
88) STIs can be
transmitted through oral sex.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
89) Using
condoms does not reduce the risk of genital herpes.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
90) The use of
antibiotics and/or birth control pills can cause changes in the vaginal walls
allowing for candidiasis to enter.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
91) There is
evidence to suggest that HAART may reduce HIV transmission.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
92) The most
common STI is HPV.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
93) John has
more than one sexual partner at a time. John is a serial monogamist.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
94) More than
85% of all positive HIV test reports in Canada occurred in the provinces of
Ontario, Alberta, and British Columbia.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
95) HPV types 6
and 11 cause genital warts. These same HPV types also cause cervical cancer.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
96) Differentiate
between common bacterial and viral STIs, giving several examples of each.
Discuss how treatments for bacterial and viral STIs differ.
Answer:
– bacterial:
chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis
– viral: HIV,
HPV, HSV
– bacterial treated with antibiotics;
different treatments for HIV, HPV, HSV
97) Outline the
four stages of syphilis infection by discussing the symptoms associated with
each stage.
Answer:
– 1: painless
chancre forms at site of infection
– 2: skin rash,
painless reddish raised bumps that darken and burst oozing discharge, swelling
of joints, sore throat, headache, fever
– 3/latent: lie dormant, no symptoms
– 4: large
ulcer on skin, muscle tissue, digestive organs, lungs, liver, etc. Can attack CNS or cardiovascular system (fatal)
98) List and
discuss biological and social factors that place women at elevated risk for STI
and HIV.
Answer:
– biological:
more susceptible to STI infection than men; male-to-female transmission of HIV
more likely than female-to-male transmission
– social: gender inequality (e.g.,
power, abuse)
99) Bart is a
freshman at university. He’s thinking that there is a fair possibility that
there will be opportunities for him to become sexually active over the next few
years. Bart decides to create a sexual health plan for himself. What types of
questions should Bart ask himself in creating his plan?
Answer:
– Does he want
to be active? What sexual activities? What circumstances? What steps should he
use to avoid STI/HIV (e.g., condom use)?
100) Discuss
each of the ways HIV can be contracted and ways it cannot be contracted.
Answer:
– can:
intercourse of any kind, cuts, blood, discharges
– cannot: saliva
101) List and
discuss three social factors that contribute to the spread of STIs.
Answer:
– gender
inequality, sexual orientation, group marginalization, province/territory,
culture, social capital, societal attitudes
102) List and
discuss three psychological factors that contribute to the spread of STIs.
Answer:
– perceived low
risk, lack of communication, psychological obstacles to condom use,
alcohol/drug abuse
103) List and
discuss three biological factors that contribute to the spread of STIs.
Answer:
– multiple
means of transmission, lifelong infections, asymptomatic cases, increased
vulnerability, gender, lack of vaccines and cures
Chapter 15
1) From a
statistical perspective, a behaviour is abnormal if it
a. deviates
from the norm.
b. is listed in
the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
c. correlates
with pathological outcomes.
d. causes harm
to the self or others.
Answer: a
2) Atypical
sexual behaviours are
a. harmful by
definition.
b. harmless by
definition.
c.
statistically normal.
d.
statistically unusual.
Answer: d
3) The American
Psychiatric Association defines a paraphilia as
a. a persistent
inability to respond to normal sexual stimuli.
b. an atypical
pattern of sexual arousal/behaviour that is considered problematic by the
individual or society.
c. a repeated
pattern of illegal sexual behaviour.
d. a repeated
pattern of sexual behaviour that the person engaging in it knows is immoral.
Answer: b
4) Based on the
information provided, which of the following individuals is most likely to be
diagnosed with a paraphilia?
a. John, who
can become sexually aroused only if he
is watching other people (who don’t know he is watching) having sex.
b. Damon, who
was arrested for distributing child pornography and sometimes watches
videotapes of young children engaged in sexual acts because he thinks it’s
funny.
c. Traci, who
frequently fantasizes about spanking her partner.
d. Julio, who
sometimes likes to wear his partner’s panties and bra when they have sex.
Answer: a
5) People with
paraphilias usually feel that their urges are
a.
parsimonious.
b. normal.
c. random.
d.
uncontrollable.
Answer: d
6) A person
with a paraphilia typically
a. has
difficulty sleeping during periods of episodic sexual behaviours.
b. engages in
aberrant sexual behaviours during periods of low anxiety.
c. replays the
paraphilic act in sexual fantasies to stimulate arousal during masturbation.
d. suppresses
memories of his/her paraphilic behaviour.
Answer: c
7) Theorists
have speculated that paraphilias represent a type of sexual
a. inhibition.
b. psychosis.
c. compulsion.
d. bipolar
disorder.
Answer: c
8) Which factor
tends to separate a paraphilia from a normal variant in sexual behaviour?
a. the
frequency of the behaviour
b. the type of
behaviour
c. feeling
helpless to resist the behaviour
d. occasionally
fantasizing about the behaviour
Answer: c
9) Which of the
following statements about paraphilias is false?
a. The
prevalence of paraphilias is unknown.
b. Paraphilias
are more common among men than women.
c. A
psychiatric diagnosis of paraphilia requires that the person is distressed by
his/her sexual urges.
d. Some cases
of paraphilia are harmless and victimless.
Answer: c
10) It is
argued that sexual preference for particular types of people and activities are
strongly influenced by cultural values. Because of such concerns, Charles Moser
has proposed that the concept of ________ should be used in place of
paraphilia.
a. atypical
sexual disorder (ASD)
b. sexual
preference disorder (SPD)
c. sexual
interest disorder (SID)
d. sexual
attraction disorder (SAD)
Answer: c
11) Heather
becomes especially aroused when her partner wears a cowboy hat during sex. This
is an example of
a.
transvestism.
b. fetishism.
c. partialism
d.
exhibitionism.
Answer: b
12) In which
disorder does an individual become sexually aroused by certain areas of the
body?
a. voyeurism
b.
exhibitionism
c. frotteurism
d. partialism
Answer: d
13) Which of
the following statements about transvestism is true?
a. Transvestite
men are often otherwise stereotypically masculine.
b.
Transvestites generally wish to become the opposite sex.
c. Transvestism
is equally common among men and women.
d. Transvestism
is strongly correlated with sexual orientation.
Answer: a
14) Partialism
is a fetish in which an individual becomes excessively aroused by particular
a. sexual acts.
b. racial characteristics.
c. non-human
species.
d. body parts.
Answer: d
15) Finding
objects associated with the other gender sexually alluring only when wearing
them is a type of paraphilia known as
a.
exhibitionism.
b.
transvestism.
c. necrophilia.
d. frotteurism.
Answer: b
16) Lenny is
sexually aroused by wearing women’s underwear. What type of paraphilia does he
have?
a. pedophilia
b. fetishism
c. partialism
d. transvestism
Answer: d
17)
Approximately what proportion of arrests for sexual offences involves
exhibitionism?
a. 1/20
b. 1/20
c. 1/5
d. 1/3
Answer: d
18)
Transvestism is often confused with
a. fetishism.
b.
transsexualism.
c. partialism.
d. voyeurism.
Answer: b
19) Which of
the following statements about exhibitionism is false?
a.
Exhibitionists are often thought to be sexually repressed.
b.
Exhibitionism is more common among men than women.
c. The
frequency of exhibitionism increases after age 40.
d. Among exhibitionists,
the urge to “flash” usually begins in early adolescence.
Answer: c
20) Enrico
dresses up in a frilly gown and wears a long blonde wig at the annual
motorcycle show to raise money for the local children’s hospital. Enrico’s
behaviour
a. is typical
of most transvestites.
b. does not
indicate that he has a paraphilia.
c. indicates a
fetish for women’s clothing.
d. is typical
of exhibitionists.
Answer: b
21) Most
transvestites
a. have
antisocial personality disorders.
b. keep their
behaviour private.
c. enjoy
enticing men into a potential sexual encounter.
d. wear
articles of female clothing when having sex with their wives.
Answer: b
22) Persistent
urges to expose one’s genitals to unsuspecting people for sexual arousal is
typical of
a. voyeurism.
b. scatologia.
c.
exhibitionism.
d.
hypoxyphilia.
Answer: c
23)
Exhibitionists typically have
a. a
developmental disability.
b. difficulty
relating to women.
c. an
extroverted personality type.
d. little
difficulty establishing meaningful relationships.
Answer: b
24) According
to an Ontario study, approximately how many exhibitionists go on to committing
other crimes?
a. 45%
b. 30%
c. 15%
d. 5%
Answer: b
25) The typical
exhibitionist is
a. older,
single, and sexually immature.
b. older,
happily married, and sexually over-expressive.
c. young, shy,
and sexually repressed.
d. young, single,
but with social skills.
Answer: c
26)
Exhibitionistic behaviour usually begins
a. after age
40.
b. between the
ages of 20 and 30.
c. between the
ages of 16 and 20.
d. between age
13 and 16.
Answer: d
27) Which of
the following men is most likely to be diagnosed as an exhibitionist?
a. Alfredo, who
likes to wear tight fitting shirts to show off his pecs.
b. Bob, who
becomes erect when his partner smiles approvingly as he takes off his clothes.
c. Steve, who
likes to engage women in conversation at the beach with an erection visible
under his speedo.
d. Osama who is
completely comfortable working as a male stripper.
Answer: c
28) People engaging
in chat scatologia are sexually aroused by
a. sending
obscene emails and instant messages.
b. talking
about feces.
c. having their
sex partners “talk dirty.”
d. manipulating
and deceiving people in order to persuade them to have sex.
Answer: a
29) Which of
the following statements about obscene phone callers is false?
a. The typical
obscene phone caller is a heterosexual male.
b. Obscene
phone callers usually target a woman they have seen but not met.
c. Obscene
phone callers are often hoping that their victim will express shock.
d. Women who
make obscene phone calls are more likely to be motivated by rage than by sexual
arousal.
Answer: b
30) Mark bought
an apartment on the twelfth floor across from a busy hotel in order to catch
couples undressing and having intercourse. Mark’s behaviour is characteristic
of
a. fetishism.
b. voyeurism.
c.
exhibitionism.
d. scatologia.
Answer: b
31) Bobby likes
to masturbate while peeking at a woman through a window while she undresses.
This type of behaviour is called
a. frotteurism.
b.
exhibitionism.
c. voyeurism.
d. fetishism.
Answer: c
32) In a
Canadian study of university students, what percentages of females and males
reported that they would watch a couple having sex if there was no chance they
would be caught?
a. 10%; 60%
b. 40%; 70%
c. 50%; 90%
d. 5%; 40%
Answer: b
33) Which is true about voyeurs?
a. They
typically do not attempt to have sex with the people they watch.
b. They are
typically psychologically introverted.
c. They are
usually also exhibitionists.
d. They tend to
be equally aroused by pornography.
Answer: a
34) Which of
the following individuals would fit the definition of a voyeur?
a. Anita, who
regularly masturbates while watching porn on the internet even though there is
a high probability that her partner will walk-in and see what she is doing.
b. Ho, who asks
his partner to masturbate on the bed while he peeks at her while hiding in the
closet.
c. Mika, who
enjoys going to strip clubs several times a month either alone or with her male
friends.
d. Tom, who
masturbates while scanning the condominium across the street with binoculars so
he can watch people having sex.
Answer: d
35) People who
become sexually aroused through the experience of pain or humiliation are
sexual
a. sadists.
b. toucherists.
c. masochists.
d.
frotteurists.
Answer: c
36) The only
paraphilia that is found with some degree of frequency in females is
a. necrophilia.
b. masochism.
c.
exhibitionism.
d. fetishism.
Answer: b
37) Which of
the following statements about masochism is false?
a. The
eroticization of mild forms of pain falls within the normal range of sexual
variation.
b. A sexual
masochist is also likely to enjoy other forms of pain not associated with sex.
c. Masochism is
the most common paraphilia among women.
d. Auto-erotic
asphyxia is a form of masochism.
Answer: b
38) The
practice of being restrained in masochistic behaviour is called?
a. flogging
b. bondage
c. crowning
d. shacking
Answer: b
39) Which of
the following statements about sado-mascochism (S&M) is false?
a. Sexual
sadists and masochists often form relationships.
b. S&M is a
variation of B&D.
c. S&M
becomes pathological when it is non-consenting and harmful.
d. Occasional
S&M is common among the general population.
Answer: b
40) People who
become sexually aroused by inflicting pain or humiliation on others are known
as
a.
frotteurists.
b. sadists.
c. masochists.
d. exhibitionists.
Answer: b
41) Which of
the following statements about sado-mascochism is false?
a. It is the
submissive partner who uses a safe word when his or her limit has been
exceeded.
b. There is no
evidence that sado-masochists have greater difficulty than other people in
forming intimate relationships.
c. For some
sado-masochists, arousal is derived from the ritual of control rather than the
infliction of physical pain.
d. Research
indicates that most sado-masochists have diverse forms of mental illness.
Answer: d
42) Bradley
uses neckties to build an elaborate contraption. While he masturbates, he leans
into a harness that puts pressure on the vessels in his neck. As he approaches
orgasm, he increases the pressure to cut off oxygen to the brain. Bradley’s
activity is typical of
a.
hypoxyphilia.
b. frotteurism.
c. necrophilia.
d. coprophilia.
Answer: a
43) Who is
“sadism” named after?
a. a character
in an Edgar Alan Poe novel
b. French aristocrat Francois de Sadis
c. French author Marquis de Sade
d. Caligula,
the Roman emperor who was known to become sexually aroused when punishing
slaves
Answer: c
44) Toucherism
is a form of
a.
exhibitionism.
b. frotteurism.
c. voyeurism.
d. fetishism.
Answer: b
45) Frotteurism
involves urges to
a. have sex
with prostitutes.
b. rub against
or touch a non-consenting person.
c. augment
sexual arousal by cutting off oxygen supplies to the brain.
d. use enemas
to heighten arousal.
Answer: b
46) In the
Kinsey studies, how prevalent was zoophilia?
a. About 20% of
both men and women reported having had sexual contact with animals.
b. About 20% of
males but only 1% of females reported having had sexual contact with animals.
c. About 8% of
men and 3–4% of women reported having had sexual contact with an animal.
d. Only 1–2% of
men and women reported having had some sexual contact with an animal.
Answer: c
47) In the
Kinsey studies, what percentage of adolescent farm boys had achieved orgasm
through sexual contact with farm animals?
a. 5%
b. 8%
c. 11%
d. 17%
Answer: d
48) Which of
the following paraphilias involves the urge to have sex with dead bodies?
a. homicidal
sadism
b. necrophilia
c. corpsophilia
d. coprophilia
Answer: b
49) William
needs anal stimulation through enemas to achieve sexual arousal and
gratification. William’s paraphilia is called
a. coprophilia
b. klismaphilia
c. frotteurism
d. urophilia
Answer: b
50) If urine
becomes eroticized during childhood, a person might develop a paraphilia called
a. klismaphilia.
b. urophilia.
c. scatophilia.
d. urinary
scatologia.
Answer: b
51) A recent
study used electroencephalography (EEG) to investigate electrical responses in
the brain among paraphilics and control subjects. It was found that paraphilic
men showed a significantly greater response in the ________ part of the brain.
a. left frontal
b. right
frontal
c. right
mid-brain
d. left
mid-brain
Answer: a
52) Classical
psychoanalytic theory suggests that many cases of paraphilia are psychological
defenses against
a. pre-pubertal
incest.
b. intense
feelings of inferiority that transfer to psychosexuality.
c. unresolved
castration anxiety.
d. the id
overwhelming the super ego during sexual fantasy.
Answer: c
53) As a boy,
Jonathan would hide in his mother’s closet and masturbate. As he continued this
practice through the early years of puberty he began to eroticize his mother’s
shoes which were in the closet. Over time, Jonathan developed a shoe
fetish. Given the information available,
which theory offers the best explanation for Jonathan’s fetish?
a.
psychoanalytic
b. sociological
c.
cognitive-behavioural
d.
psycho-biological
Answer: c
54) Martin
Weinberg suggests that the sado-masochistic lifestyle might reflect
a. an attempt
to reverse the power relationships that exist within society.
b. an
association learned in childhood between sexual arousal and punishment.
c. an inability
of the participants to conceptualize sexual behaviour as a way of giving and
receiving affection.
d. predisposing
factors such as difficulty forming intimate relationships.
Answer: a
55) If a boy
repeatedly observes exhibitionistic behaviour, he might be led to eroticize the
act of exposing himself. This would be an example of the ________ as an
explanation of how a paraphilia develops.
a.
psychoanalytic perspective
b. cognitive-
behavioural perspective
c. sociological
perspective
d. integrated
perspective
Answer: b
56) John Money
theorized that every individual has a mental template of an ideal lover and the
types of stimuli that are sexually arousing. Formed in childhood, this template
is called a
a. sexual
script.
b. sexual schema.
c. lovemap.
d. lustmap.
Answer: c
57) Which of
the following is true regarding treatment of paraphilias?
a. Most people
with paraphilias are distressed by their behaviour and seek help.
b. Many people
with paraphilias seek treatment only after they come into conflict with the
law.
c. People with
paraphilias are highly likely to be motivated to change their behaviour.
d. People with paraphilias, treated or untreated, tend
to take responsibility for their behaviour.
Answer: b
58) Which of
the following statements about the treatment of paraphilic sex offenders is false?
a. Many sex
offenders do not want treatment if they have a paraphilia.
b. Unless the
offender is motivated to change, treatment is unlikely to be successful.
c. Paraphilic
sex offenders typically claim that they are able, if necessary, to control
their paraphilic behaviour.
d. Many sex
offenders only receive treatment because they have been referred by the court
system.
Answer: c
59) Which is not a technique used in
cognitive-behavioural therapy for paraphilia?
a. stimulus
substitution
b. covert
sensitization
c. aversion
therapy
d.
desensitization
Answer: a
60) A behaviour
therapy that attempts to break the link between the sexual stimulus and sexual
arousal is called
a. aversion
therapy.
b. systematic
desensitization.
c. covert
sensitization.
d. modelling.
Answer: b
61) Pairing
undesirable sexual behaviour with negative stimuli, such as mild electric
shocks, is a treatment technique called
a. systematic
desensitization.
b. orgasmic
reconditioning.
c. stimulus
substitution.
d. aversion
therapy.
Answer: d
62) Which is a
variation of aversion therapy in which paraphilic fantasies are paired with an
aversive stimulus in a client’s imagination?
a. covert
sensitization
b.
desensitization
c. counter
arousal technique
d. contrary
modeling
Answer: a
63) Which is not true about social skills training?
a. It focuses
on helping the individual improve his or her ability to relate to others.
b. The client
may role-play desired behaviours.
c. Attention is
focused on encouraging the client to express deeper emotions.
d. The
therapist might first model a desired behaviour.
Answer: c
64) Nic is
being treated for his paraphilia by first imagining the paraphilic object to
become sexually aroused. Next, just before orgasm, he is instructed to switch
from the paraphilic imagery to culturally appropriate imagery. The technique
being used is called
a. social
skills training.
b. aversion
therapy.
c. orgasmic
reconditioning.
d. systematic
desensitization.
Answer: c
65) The use of
SSRIs to treat paraphilias is based on the assumption that paraphilias might be
a
a. type of
obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b. form of
depression.
c. variant of
post-traumatic stress disorder.
d. mood
dysfunction.
Answer: a
66) Grubin
reported that SSRIs may be helpful in the treatment of which paraphilias?
a. sadism,
frotteurism, transvestism
b.
exhibitionism, voyeurism, fetishism
c. frotteurism,
telephone scatologia, exhibitionism
d. toucherism,
telephone scatolgia, transnvestism
Answer: b
67) In some
men, the intensity of their sex drive and the urge to act on their paraphilic
impulses can be lowered through the use
of
a. hydroxyalpha
inhibitor.
b. protease
inhibitors.
c. androgen
supplementation.
d.
medroxyprogesterone actate.
Answer: d
68) John
Bradford, an Ottawa psychiatrist, has suggested a six-level schema for
treatment of paraphilia based on the severity of the deviation. The best
description of the treatment would be
a. a
combination of cognitive-behavioural treatment and medication.
b.
insight-oriented therapy followed by successively advanced social skills
training.
c. step-wise
behaviour therapy.
d. a combination
of psychoanalysis and SSRI.
Answer: a
69) Paul
Fedoroff, an Ottawa psychiatrist, questions the value of MPA to treat
paraphilia because it
a. does not
deal with the underlying causes.
b. has
debilitating side effects.
c. has a high
refusal and dropout rate.
d. is not
conducive to evaluation through clinical trials.
Answer: c
70) Which of
the following is not a term utilized
in the textbook to describe a psychological disorder in which a person is
unable to control an excessively frequent sexual behaviour?
a. sexual
addiction
b.
hypersexuality
c. compulsive
sexual behaviour
d. hyperphillia
Answer: d
71) A therapist
who prescribes antidepressants to a patient who is unable to control extremely
frequent sexual behaviours is likely informed by which of the following
conceptualizations of the behaviour?
a.
obsessive-compulsive
b.
cognitive-behavioural
c. Jungian
d. addiction
Answer: a
72) Which of
the following diagnostic categories is under consideration for inclusion in the
forthcoming DSM due in May 2013?
a. masturbatory
pathos
b.
hypersexuality
c. hyperphilia
d. sexual
addiction
Answer: b
73) According
to the textbook, our scientific understanding of paraphilias
a. is in its
infancy.
b. has
benefited from several recent breakthroughs.
c. is well
developed enough that standardized, well-evaluated, treatments are available
for some of the paraphilias.
d. has been
dominated by the psychoanalytic perspective.
Answer: a
74) For each of the following descriptions of an
atypical sexual pattern, match the pattern with the correct term.
75) In North
American culture, sexual practices such as oral sex were once considered
deviant or abnormal.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
76) The
psychiatric diagnosis of paraphilia requires that the person has acted on the
urges or is distinctly distressed by them.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
77)
Cross-dressing to achieve sexual arousal is generally a harmless and victimless
paraphilia.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
78) Sexual
masochism is the most common paraphilia among women.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
79) Auto-erotic
asphyxia is also known as autophilia.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
80) It is
common practice for most mutually agreed upon S&M scenarios to have few or
any rules related to levels of power and domination.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
81) Unlike
other paraphilias, exhibitionism is more common among women than men.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
82)
Transvestism and transsexualism are conceptually distinct.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
83) Urophilia
is rooted in urogenital abnormalities.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
84)
Psychoanalytic theory suggests that many paraphilias are rooted in castration
anxiety.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
85) The cognitive-behavioural
perspective suggests that many fetishes and paraphilias are learned.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
86) Like
exhibitionists, voyeurs seek to become sexually aroused by shocking their
victims.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
87) Sex
offenders typically claim that they are able to control their paraphilic
impluses.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
88)
Antidepressants are often used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorders and,
therefore, may be a good candidate to treat some cases of paraphilia.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
89)
Psychotherapists utilizing an addiction model to understand excessively
frequent, out of control, sexual behaviours are likely to encourage patients to
join Sexaholics Anonymous.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
90) Discuss the
difficulties involved in defining normal versus abnormal sexual behaviour.
– distinction between statistical
abnormality versus abnormality in terms of harm
Answer:
– a behavior is
not necessarily abnormal just because not many people do it
– culture and society affect
practices
91) List four
different paraphilias. Describe the characteristic behaviours associated with
each paraphilia and theories as to how each paraphilia develops.
Answer:
– fetishism,
voyeurism, necrophila, klismaphilia, coprophilia, urophilia, frotteurism, zoophilia,
sadism, masochism, S&M, telephone scatologia, exhibitionism, transvestism
92) Compare and
contrast the psychoanalytic and cognitive-behavioural explanations for how
paraphilias develop within the individual. Give examples of how these
perspectives can be applied to understanding the development of specific types
of paraphilias.
Answer:
– psychological
defences due to castration fear (psychoanalytic)
– learned
behaviour (cognitive-behavioural)
– e.g.,
transvestism arising from castration anxiety
– e.g., fetishism arising from
watching mother in childhood and eroticizing her behaviour
93) Describe
the less common paraphilias and what the potential causes of such disorders are
thought to arise from.
Answer:
– klismaphilia:
enemas—parents administering them in childhood
– coprophilia:
feces—association with feces and arousal in childhood
– urophilia: urine—association with
urine and arousal in childhood
94) Compare and
contrast sexual addiction and compulsive sexual behaviour. Describe the
treatments that might be used for each condition.
Answer:
– Sexual
addiction is similar to other addictions like alcohol and gambling.
– Compulsive
sexual behaviour is considered an obsessive compulsive disorder.
– Sexaholics
Anonymous is a treatment for sexual addiction.
–
Anti-depressants are a treatment for compulsive sexual behaviour.
95) Sexual
sadism can be dangerous. Who is this paraphilia named after (and why), and what
are the typical characteristics of this disorder?
Answer:
– Marquis de
Sade; wrote books about a woman who was subjected to such acts
– persistent, powerful urges and
sexual fantasies involving the inflicting of pain and suffering on others to
achieve sexual arousal
96) Compare and
contrast systematic desensitization, aversion therapy, covert sensitization,
and orgasmic reconditioning in treating a fetish.
Answer:
– SD: break the
line between the stimulus and the inappropriate response (arousal); relax muscles,
expose to stimulus but remain relaxed
– AT:
paraphilia is paired repeatedly with an aversive stimulus
– CS: like AT,
but fantasies are used
– OR: arouse to stimulus, then
change stimulus to something appropriate
97) Should
Canadians be concerned with paraphilic behaviours practised between two
consenting adults?
Answer:
– Pick an
opinion and explain why.
Chapter 16
1) In Canada,
sexual assault involving a weapon would be categorized as
a. Level 1.
b. Level 2.
c. Level 3.
d. Level 4.
Answer: b
2) In Canada,
rape
a. would be
listed as a Level 1 sexual assault.
b. would be
listed as an aggravated sexual assault.
c. would be
listed as a sexual assault causing bodily harm.
d. was removed
from the Criminal Code of Canada and replaced with sexual assault.
Answer: d
3) In Canada,
which of the following would be classified as a sexual assault if consent were
not given?
a. touching a
person’s breasts
b. telling an
explicit joke
c. voyeurism
d. obscene
phone call
Answer: a
4) Which
statement is true with regards to
sexual assault?
a. Sexual
assault is an act of power and dominance.
b. Sexual
assault is an act of sex.
c. Unwanted
sexual activity between married individuals is not classified as assault.
d. Unwanted
sexual activity between persons of the same sex is not classified as sexual
assault.
Answer: a
5) The statute
of limitations for prosecution of sexual assault in Canada is
a. 1 year.
b. 5 years.
c. 10 years.
d. There is no
statute of limitations for prosecution of sexual assault.
Answer: d
6) Sexual
assault classified as Level 3 is characterized by
a. minor
physical injury.
b. maiming and
disfigurement.
c. threats to
use a weapon.
d. threats to
injure friends or family members.
Answer: b
7) What statement
in true with regards to consent for
sexual activity?
a. Consent must
be obtained when one partner is under the influence of drugs.
b. Consent must
be obtained when one partner is intoxicated.
c. Consent must
be obtained when one partner is underage.
d. Consent must
be obtained when an individual is not intoxicated, not underage, not
unconscious, or not under the influence of drugs.
Answer: d
8) Sexual
activity is considered to be sexual assault if
a. consent is
not freely given.
b. physical
coercion is involved.
c. a weapon is
used to threaten an individual.
d. sexual
intercourse is involved.
Answer: a
9) In Canada,
the majority of reported sexual offenses are classified as
a. Level 1.
b. Level 2.
c. Level 3.
d. sexual
harassment.
Answer: a
10) In terms of
the number of sexual offenses that were reported over the past decades, the
number has
a. increased.
b. increased in
line with population growth.
c. stayed the
same.
d. decreased.
Answer: d
11) In Canada,
the sexual assault rate is highest among those aged
a. 15–24.
b. 25–44.
c. 45–55.
d. 55 and
older.
Answer: a
12)
Approximately ________ of Canadian college and university women reported they
had been coerced, either verbally or physically, to have unwanted sex.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
Answer: b
13) Researchers
estimate that ____ in _____ sexual assaults are never reported to police.
a. 1; 50
b. 1; 25
c. 1; 10
d. 1; 100
Answer: c
14) In Canada,
the highest rates of police-reported sexual assault occur in
a. Nunavut.
b. Manitoba.
c. Ontario.
d. Quebec.
Answer: a
15) Statistics
from the 2009 General Social Survey (GSS) indicate that approximately ______ of
perpetrators of sexual assault are male.
a. 90%
b. 60%
c. 75%
d. 99%
Answer: a
16) One of the
central myths about sexual assault in our culture is that most sexual assaults
are perpetrated
a. by
acquaintances.
b. by husbands
against their wives.
c. by
strangers.
d. on dates.
Answer: c
17) In stranger
sexual assault, it is typical for an assailant to
a. choose a victim
and then carefully plan the sexual assault.
b. choose a
victim impulsively and immediately commit the sexual assault.
c. invite a
woman on a date and then force sex.
d. target
prepubescent children.
Answer: a
18) In general,
women are more likely to be sexually assaulted by
a. men they
know.
b. strangers.
c. criminals.
d. men in
positions of power.
Answer: a
19) Women are more likely to report sexual assault to the police when
the perpetrator is
a. a stranger.
b. an
acquaintance.
c. a family
member.
d. an employer.
Answer: a
20) Canadian
statistics from 2002 show that approximately ________ of sexual assaults were
committed by an acquaintance.
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%
Answer: d
21) Joanne, a
21-year-old university student, is most likely to be sexually assaulted by
a. a friend or
acquaintance.
b. a co-worker.
c. a stranger
at the university she attends.
d. a complete
stranger, while walking home from university.
Answer: a
22)
Police-reported data shows that in 2007, approximately ______ of sexual
assaults were committed by strangers.
a. 20%
b. 10%
c. 30%
d. 5%
Answer: a
23) The major motive behind gang sexual assault
is
a. anger.
b. power.
c. solidarity.
d. competition.
Answer: b
24) What is the
accepted way of expressing sexual consent?
a. not stopping
the partner
b. verbally
expressing agreement to sexual activity
c. positive
body language
d. There has
been no real consensus as to the proper definition of consent.
Answer: d
25) Which
statement is trueregarding male sexual assault?
a. Most men who
sexually assault other men are homosexual.
b. The only
motive cited for male sexual assault is retaliation.
c. Males are
generally attacked by a single assailant.
d. Most male
sexual assaults are perpetrated by other males.
Answer: d
26) Men who
sexually assault other men are rarely motivated by
a. revenge.
b. domination.
c. sexual
arousal.
d. sadism.
Answer: c
27) Male sexual
assault victims
a. are often
attacked by multiple assailants.
b. suffer less
emotional trauma than female victims.
c. suffer fewer
physical injuries than female victims.
d. are more
willing to report the sexual assault than female victims.
Answer: a
28) In a study
of Canadian male university students, ______ reported that they had been
coerced into having sex in the previous year.
a. 10%
b. 5%
c. 50%
d. 20%
Answer: d
29) When
ingested, rohypnol casues
a. impaired
judgment and heightened sexual arousal.
b. impaired
judgment and memory loss.
c. loss of
inhibitions and enhanced sexual arousal.
d. paralysis
and memory loss.
Answer: b
30) Research on
university students supports the connection between ________ and tendencies to
sexual assault.
a. having been
a victim of sexual assault
b.
stereotypical masculine identification
c. the use of
pornography
d. gang affiliation
Answer: b
31) Which
statement is true regarding partner
sexual assault?
a. In Canada, a
man cannot be convicted of sexually assaulting his wife.
b. Partner
sexual assault is more common than date sexual assault.
c. Men with
traditional views of sexual relationships are less likely to commit partner
sexual assault.
d. Marital
sexual assault is a crime in all societies.
Answer: b
32) As
Magdalene’s husband began to drink more, he became more sexually aggressive. In
the last three months, he has forced sex on her three times. If she is typical
of most victims of marital sexual assault,
Magdalene is likely to
a. seek
counselling.
b. get the
police involved.
c. stay silent
and remain with her husband.
d. secretly run
away.
Answer: c
33) Which of
the following is not one of the myths
about sexual assault mentioned in the text?
a. “Women
say no when they mean yes.”
b. “Deep
down, women want to be assaulted.”
c. “Women
make up sexual assault to retaliate against men.”
d. “Women
like a man who is forceful and pushy.”
Answer: c
34) College men
who held “traditional” views of gender roles were
a. less likely
to accept violence against women.
b. more likely
to blame sexual assault survivors.
c. less likely
to become aroused by depictions of sexual assault.
d. less likely
to have engaged in sexual coercion.
Answer: b
35) Which of
the following statements best reflects the findings from research on sexually
coercive men?
a. Most
sexually coercive men are mentally ill.
b. Most
sexually coercive men have criminal backgrounds.
c. Sexually
coerceive men have lower IQs.
d. There is no
single type of man who commits sexual assault.
Answer: d
36) In studies
looking for commonalities among individuals who commit sexual assault, evidence
suggests that
a. most have
antisocial personality disorders.
b. they are
generally just as intelligent and mentally fit as others.
c. the majority
display narcissistic traits.
d. they come
from highly dysfunctional families.
Answer: b
37) Research
from 65 studies conducted in 22 countries indicates that approximately ____ %
of girls have been sexually abused.
a. 20
b. 5
c. 50
d. 10
Answer: a
38) A father
who abuses his preschool child tends to be
a. domineering.
b.
authoritarian.
c. independent.
d. passive.
Answer: d
39) Upon
release from prison, Canadian sex offenders
a. are mandated
to take anti-androgen drugs to reduce their sex drive.
b. undergo
psychological interventions to reduce recidivism.
c. must be
evaluated for possible surgical castration.
d. must register
with the national sex offender registry.
Answer: d
40) Men who are
coerced into sexual activity are more likely to
a. be
physically pressured.
b. made to feel
guilty causing them to “give in.”
c. experience
intoxication.
d. be
emotionally pressured.
Answer: c
41) Which is not true about posttraumatic stress
disorder (PTSD)?
a. PTSD is
primarily experienced by women.
b. PTSD is
brought on by exposure to a traumatic event.
c. People with
PTSD may have flashbacks of the traumatic experience.
d. PTSD may persist
for years.
Answer: a
42) Research
has found that women who experienced sexual coercion in their dating
relationships were more likely to have
a. lower levels
of self-esteem and sexual self-esteem.
b. higher
levels of drug use.
c. many casual
sexual partners.
d. a very
limited number of sexual partners.
Answer: a
43) A key
component of the treatment process for sexual assault survivors is to help the
survivor
a. mobilize
support.
b. remember the
details of the event.
c. forgive the
assailant.
d. report the
sexual assault to police.
Answer: a
44) Treatment
of sexual assault survivors typically involves two stages. What are these two
stages?
a. crisis
intervention and facilitation of longterm adjustment
b. medication
and peer counseling
c. rehabilitation
and counseling
d. legal advice
and therapy
Answer: a
45) In terms of
sexual assault prevention, which of the following is not an appropriate prevention measure?
a. Keep
doorways and entries well lit.
b. Check the
back seat of your car before entering.
c. List
yourself on your mailbox by first initials only.
d. Keep your
keys in your pocket while walking to the car since you need your hands free.
Answer: d
46) Ivy has
recently broken up with her partner who was quite angry over her rejection of
him. Last evening, he showed up at her door asking if they could at least talk
about the breakup. What is the best advice for Ivy?
a. Call the
police.
b. Let him in,
but agree to a time limit.
c. Do not let
him in if she feels he is likely to be aggressive.
d. Step outside
to talk to him.
Answer: c
47) Research
has shown that if attacked, pleading, begging, or attempting to reason with the
assailant
a. is an
effective strategy for preventing sexual assault.
b. can be
effective in some situations.
c. will not
stop the sexual assault but will lessen the chance of serious injury.
d. will buy
enough time for a passerby to intervene or call the police.
Answer: b
48) Which
statement is false with regards to
verbal sexual coercion?
a. Verbal
coercion is more common that physical coercion.
b. Both men and
women use verbal coercion.
c. There is not
clear definition of what constitutes verbal coercion.
d. Verbal
coercion is rarely used in same-sex relationships.
Answer: d
Diff: 1
49) Which of
the following is nota form of child sexual abuse?
a. sex play
between children of similar ages
b. intimate
kissing between an adult and a child under the age of consent
c. masturbating
while a child under the age of consent watches
d. an adult
fondling the genitals of a child who gives willing consent
Answer: a
50) In the vast
majority of sexual abuse cases, the abuse occurs between a child and
a. a stranger
who lures them into a car.
b. a parent.
c. relatives,
family friends, or neighbours.
d. a stranger
who lures them into his/her apartment or house.
Answer: c
51) With regard
to child sexual abuse in Canada, which of the following is true?
a. The majority
of victims under the age of 18 were female.
b. Twenty-five
percent of sexual assault victims were under the age of 18.
c. Boys over
the age of 12 were more likely to be victims.
d. Statistics
are unavailable due to laws protecting minors.
Answer: a
52) In contrast
to adult sexual assault, child sexual abuse
a. involves
more force.
b. always
involves penetration.
c. generally
involves the use of restraints.
d. rarely
involves the use of force.
Answer: d
53) Which of
the following would be considered an offense under the Canadian Criminal Code?
a. a
19-year-old assistant store manager having consensual sex with a 16-year-old
worker
b. a
13-year-old girl and a 14-year-old boy
having sex
c. two
16-year-old males having oral sex
d. two
13-year-old youths participating in oral sex
Answer: a
54) Sean, age
18, has been charged with having sexual intercourse with a minor, age 13. Which
of the following claims would help his defense under Canadian law?
a. “She said
‘Yes’ and initiated the sexual activity.”
b. “I didn’t
know she was under age.”
c. “A friend
told me she was 18.”
d. “When I
asked her how old she was, she said ‘18’ and even showed me her ID.”
Answer: d
55) The most
common type of child sexual abuse involves
a. oral sex.
b. vaginal
penetration.
c. genital
fondling.
d.
exhibitionism.
Answer: c
56) Sexual
abuse of children by women might be underreported because women
a. are allowed
a freer range of physical contact with children.
b. do not leave
any physical evidence of abuse.
c. are treated
more lightly by the justice system.
d. are more careful
to cover up their abuse.
Answer: a
57) A clinical
diagnosis of pedophilia is made when an individual
a. sexually
assaults a prepubescent child.
b. is sexually
attracted exclusively to children.
c. has a
persistent or recurrent attraction to children.
d. acts on or
is distressed by attraction to children.
Answer: d
58) Research
indicates that many pedophiles are
a. controlling
and seek out children for sexual activity in times of stress.
b. weak,
passive, and socially inept.
c.
manipulative, aggressive, and socially skilled.
d. passive but
socially skilled.
Answer: b
59)
“Consanguineous” means
a. sexually
inappropriate.
b. related by
blood.
c. incestuous.
d. related by
marriage.
Answer: b
60) The least
common type of incest is
a.
father-daughter incest.
b. mother-son incest.
c.
stepfather-stepdaughter incest.
d. sibling
incest.
Answer: b
61) Many
fathers who commit incest with daughters see their daughters as
a. sexual
objects.
b. wanting and
willing to have sex.
c. a surrogate
wife.
d. sexually
passive.
Answer: c
62) Which
statement regarding the effects of sexual abuse on children is false?
a. Survivors of
sexual abuse might become prematurely sexually active.
b. Regressive
behaviours are common among abused children.
c. Girls who
have been abused tend to become physically aggressive, while boys become
depressed and withdrawn.
d. Adolescent
girls who have experienced abuse tend to have more psychological problems than
girls who haven’t been abused.
Answer: c
63) Marshall
and colleagues have suggested a number of approaches to the treatment of sex
offenders. Which approach is not one
they recommend?
a. Having
offenders take responsibility for their actions.
b. Teaching
relationship skills.
c.
Reconditioning strategies to enhance appropriate sexual interests and reduce
deviant ones.
d. Having
offenders register on a national sex offender registry and participate in a
public notification system.
Answer: d
64) Some
Canadian communities have volunteer groups known as Circles of Support and
Accountability (COSA) whose two goals are community protection and
a. offender
rehabilitation.
b. offender
tracking.
c. offender
alert.
d. offender
labelling.
Answer: a
65) Which of
the following is not an example of
sexual harassment?
a. asking a
co-worker out on a date
b. leering at a
co-worker’s body
c. hanging nude
pictures in your locker
d. telling
sexual jokes
Answer: a
66) Sexual
harassment generally involves all of the following except
a. abuse of
power.
b. sexual
desire.
c. social
control.
d. hostility
towards women.
Answer: b
67) One of the
less common forms of sexual harassment is
a. staring.
b. making
sexual jokes.
c. making
threats.
d. making
comments about women.
Answer: c
68) The most
common response of women who experience sexual harassment in the workforce is
to
a. file a
formal complaint.
b. take legal
action against their harasser.
c. quit their
job.
d. confront
their harasser.
Answer: d
69) Which of
the following is true about sexual
harassment in the workplace?
a. Employees
cannot sue their employers for sexual harassment unless they can prove
psychological harm.
b. An employee
cannot charge an employer with sexual harassment unless he/she was demoted or
deprived of a promotion for failure to comply with sexual requests.
c. Employers
cannot be held responsible or sued for sexual harassment if the employee did
not first file a complaint within the company.
d. Sexual
harassment can include any behaviour of a sexual nature that creates a hostile,
intimidating, or offensive environment.
Answer: d
70) In a suvey
of Canadian women (1999) approximately how many reported having experienced
harassment in the work place in the past year?
a. 50–60%
b. 60–70%
c. 25–30%
d. 10–20%
Answer: a
71) In a study
of Canadian students in grades 6 to 8, which of the following conclusions was
found regarding sexual harassment?
a. Girls were
more likely to be victims.
b. Boys and
girls were equally likely to report victimization.
c. Girls were
more likely to report perpetration.
d. Boys were
more likely to be victims.
Answer: b
72) In a survey
(2008) of Ontario high school students, approximately ______ reported that they
had been subjected to sexual comments or gestures at school.
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 75%
d. 15%
Answer: a
73) High school
boys were most upset by what type of sexual harassment?
a. being
targets of sexual comments
b. postings on
the internet
c. being
targets of sexual rumours or graffiti
d. being
treated as a sexual object
Answer: c
74) Which
statement is false with regards to
sexual harassment?
a. Harassers
are just as likely to be female as male.
b. Under
Canadian law, sexual harassment is recognized as a form of sex discrimination.
c. Gay,
lesbian, and bisexual youth are more likely to experience sexual harassment
than heterosexual youth.
d. Women who
experience sexual harassment in the workplace are unlikely to report the
harassment.
Answer: a
75) Employers
can be held responsible for their employees’ harassing behaviour in the
workplace if
a. the
behaviour involves physical intimidation.
b. the
behaviour causes the victim to leave their job.
c. employers
were aware of the behaviour and did nothing to stop it.
d. the behaviour
is reported to the police.
Answer: c
76) Match the following descriptions of the coercive
behaviour with the correct term.
77) In Canada,
the number of sexual assaults reported to the police has been declining since
1993.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
78) The
prevalence of sexual assault in Canada is similar in all regions.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
79) Most women
are sexually assaulted by men they know, not by strangers.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
80) Most men
are sexually assaulted by men.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
81) Cases of
acquaintance sexual assault are more likely to be reported to the police than
cases of stranger assault.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
82) Most sexual
assaults in Canada are not reported to the police.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
83) Gang sexual
assaults tend to be more vicious than individual attacks.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
84) The legal
age of consent in Canada is 14 years.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
85) Charges of
date sexual assault often come down to a case of his word against hers.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
86) Most men
who sexually assault other men are homosexual.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
87) A number of
researchers have found that men who hold more liberal views of gender roles are
more likely to sexually assault their partners.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
88) In one
study, men who held traditional views of gender roles were more aroused by
depictions of sexual assault.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
89) Some
researchers believe that our society encourages sexual assault by socializing
females to be sexually passive.
a. True
b. False Answer: b
90) Sexually
coercive men generally suffer from various degrees of mental illness.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
91) Physical
coercion is used more frequently than verbal coercion.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
92) In child
sexual abuse, physical force is seldom used because the abuser has already
established trust with the child.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
93) Pedophiles
are not sexually attracted to adults.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
94) Canadians
who go to other countries and have sex with children under the age of 14 can be
charged in Canada.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
95) Adolescent
girls who were sexually abused tend to avoid sexual activity with their peers.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
96) Sexual
jokes, suggestive comments, and sexual innuendos are forms of sexual
harassment.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
97)
Differentiate between the levels of sexual assault in Canada.
Answer:
– Level 1:
non-consensual touching, etc., that does not use a weapon or endangerment
– Level 2:
threat with a weapon
– Level 3: disfigurement or
endangerment
98) In Canada,
the term “rape” was removed from the Criminal Code and replaced with sexual
assault. Why do you think this change in terminology occurred?
Answer:
– expanded
definition of what constitutes sexual assault (i.e., it’s more than sexual
intercourse)
– “assault”
defined as a physical crime rather than an act of sex
99) Describe
the three forms of incest listed in the textbook and the common result of each
of these situations.
Answer:
– father-daughter:
injury to daughter, often results in incest in daughter’s family
–
brother-sister: often both partners are normal, unless it is forced or punished
by parents
– mother-son: often results in
incest in son’s family; sometimes the son and mother have children
100) List five
suggestions to consider if you are the victim of a sexual assault.
Answer:
– Don’t change
anything.
– Consider
reporting it.
– Ask someone
you know to take you to the hospital.
– Be assertive.
– Question health professionals.
101) List
twelve precautions that women can take to lower their risk of sexual assault.
Answer:
– keep keys at
the ready; use initials for listing in phone directory; deadbolt; doorways lit;
avoid deserted areas; check backseat; don’t give rides; tell partner how far
you want to go; meet new dates in public places; state refusal definitively; be
aware of fears, vibes, be cautious in new environments
102) Discuss
the family factors that appear to contribute to incest.
Answer:
– General
family disruption: spousal abuse, dysfunctional marriage, alcoholic or
physically abusive parents, stressful events in the father’s life
– fathers
abusing older daughters tend to be domineering and authoritarian; abusing young
daughters tend to be passive, dependent and have low self-esteem
– uneven power
relationship in marriage; wife often rejects husband sexually
– fathers were
usually religious, fundamentalist, and moralistic; sexually frustrated
– abuse tends to be repeated from
generation to generation
103) Outline
the various behaviours that can constitute sexual harassment. Describe one possible scenario that involves
workplace harassment.
Answer:
– verbal
harassment or abuse; subtle pressure for sexual activity; remarks about a
person’s clothing, body or sexual activities; leering or ogling; unwelcome
touching, patting, or pinching; brushing against the person’s body; demands for
sexual favours accompanied by threats to job or status; physical assault;
unwelcome sexual jokes and sexual innuendos
104) Discuss
six of the nine suggestions that might be helpful if you are dealing with
sexual harassment in the workplace or any other setting.
Answer:
– maintain a record; seek support; convey a professional attitude;
discourage harassing behaviour and encourage appropriate behaviour; avoid being
alone with the harasser; talk with the harasser; write a letter to the
harasser; file a complaint; seek legal remedies
Chapter 17
1) In Canada,
procuring and living off the avails of prostitution is
a. legal in all
provinces and territories.
b. illegal in
all provinces and territories.
c. illegal in
all provinces and territories except Quebec and Ontario.
d. legal in all
provinces and territories except Prince Edward Island.
Answer: b
2) Prostitution
can be traced as far back as
a. Victorian
England.
b. ancient Greece.
c. ancient Mesopotamia.
d. the Middle
Ages.
Answer: c
3) Throughout
recorded history, the major motive for prostitution has been
a. economic.
b. sexual
pleasure.
c. the
procurement of drugs.
d. unusual
sexual acts.
Answer: a
4) Which
statement is true about prostitution
in Canada?
a. Prostitution
is illegal everywhere in Canada.
b. Prostitution
is often referred to as “Canada’s newest profession.”
c. Prostitution
is legal in Quebec only in province-licensed brothels.
d. Prostitution
itself has never been illegal in Canada.
Answer: d
5) In recent
years, _______________ has become a more preferred term for “prostitute.”
a. “street
walker”
b. “sex worker”
c. “escort”
d. “working
girl”
Answer: b
6) Most
criminal charges relating to prostitution in Canada are for
a.
communicating.
b. procuring.
c. soliciting.
d. dealing.
Answer: a
7) What
percentage of Canadians believes that adults should be free to engage in
consensual prostitution?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 66%
d. 75%
Answer: b
8) In the
business of sex work, “John” refers to
a. a pimp.
b. a customer.
c. a gigolo.
d. a hustler.
Answer: b
9) What is a
common method used by police to stop prostitution?
a. citizen
complaints
b. walking the
streets and arresting all women who are appear to be sex workers
c. letting
businesses register, and then closing them down for illegal business
d. entrapment
Answer: d
10) In 2010,
the Canadian prostitution laws were challenged by
a. sex workers
and legal experts in Ontario and British Columbia
b. far-right
religious groups
c. public
health experts
d. a coalition
of sexual assault centres across Canada
Answer: a
11) A 2009
Angus Reid poll found that _____ of Canadians believed that prostitution should
be entirely prohibited.
a. 10 %
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 60%
Answer: b
12) In the
hierarchy of sex work, the workers with the least status are the
a. escorts.
b.
streetwalkers.
c. brothel
workers.
d. massage
parlour workers.
Answer: b
13) Sex workers
who generally work on their own and charge the most for their services are
known as
a. “escorts.”
b. “streetwalkers.”
c. “call
girls.”
d. “brothel
workers.”
Answer: c
14) What type
of sex worker earns the lowest income?
a. call girl
b. streetwalker
c. escort
service worker
d. massage
parlour worker
Answer: b
15) In a study
(2011) of street-based sex workers in Vancouver, approximately what percentage
reported that they had experienced violence from clients, pimps, or other sex
workers?
a. 85%
b. 72%
c. 55%
d. 98%
Answer: d
16) Robert
Pickton from British Columbia was sentenced to prison for at least 25 years
because of
a. soliciting a
prostitute.
b. living off
the avails of prostitution.
c. murdering
several streetwalkers.
d. beating
several call girls.
Answer: c
17) Pimps do not provide streetwalkers with
a. protection.
b. bail.
c. room and
board.
d. a salary.
Answer: d
18) A pimp’s
typical cut from a streetwalker’s earnings is
a. 90%.
b. 50%.
c. 35%.
d. 20%.
Answer: a
19) Today, the
brothel has largely been replaced by
a. cat houses.
b.
streetwalkers.
c. massage
parlours.
d. bar
prostitutes.
Answer: c
20) Prostitutes
who work for escort services typically come from
a. backgrounds
involving physical or sexual abuse.
b. lower income
families with little education.
c. well-educated,
middle-class backgrounds.
d. upper income
backgrounds with a history of sexual abuse.
Answer: c
21) In the
hierarchy of sex work, those with the highest status are known as
a. call girls.
b. hotel
prostitutes.
c. bar
prostitutes.
d. brothel workers.
Answer: a
22) According
to research (2006), approximately ______ of Canadian sex workers conduct their
business transactions on the street.
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 60%
Answer: a
23) Which type
of prostitute is generally well-educated, provides conversation and
companionship, and generally accompanies her client on “dates”?
a. streetwalker
b. call girl
c. hotel
prostitute
d. brothel
prostitute
Answer: b
24) Canadian
researchers argue that the safety and well-being of sex workers would be
enhanced by policies that focus on
a. occupational
health and safety, rights, and services.
b. compulsory
testing for STIs.
c. greater
penalties for men who solicit sex.
d. licensing of
brothels.
Answer: d
25) New
Zealand’s approach to prostitution is known for
a. its harm
reduction and labour rights framework.
b. its success
in reducing violence against streetwalkers.
c. its strict
stand against the legalization of prostitution.
d. its endorsement
of licensed brothels.
Answer: a
26) In Canada,
many initiates into prostitution are
a. university
students.
b. addicted to
drugs.
c. teenage
runaways.
d. mentally
unstable.
Answer: c
27) Maggie’s, a
Toronto based organization, is
a. a school for
Johns, run by former sex workers.
b. a hospice
for sex workers with AIDS.
c. a
peer-education project run by sex workers.
d. a support
group for sex workers with addictions.
Answer: c
28) Two factors
that figure prominently in the backgrounds of many sex workers are
a. poverty and
promiscuity.
b. drug abuse
and teen pregnancy.
c. poverty and
sexual/physical abuse.
d.
sexual/physical abuse and low self-esteem.
Answer: c
29) “Kept boys”
a. are male
prostitutes who cater to older women.
b. are male
prostitutes who have intercourse before the age of 14.
c. have
relationships with older “sugar daddies.”
d. are prison
inmates who are sexually abused by older inmates.
Answer: c
30)
“Habitual” Johns use prostitutes
a. as their
major or exclusive sexual outlet.
b. because they
desire novelty or sexual variety.
c. to satisfy
specific fetishes.
d. because they
lack social skills.
Answer: a
31) Men who pay
female sex workers
a. come from
lower income backgrounds.
b. represent
all socioeconomic backgrounds.
c. have
troubled marriages.
d. are socially
inept and unable to establish lasting relationships.
Answer: b
32) Which of
the following is not a common motive
for using prostitution?
a. sex for
eroticism and variety
b. difficulty
attracting a partner
c. sex without
negotiation
d. sex for
emotional commitment
Answer: d
33) Which of
the following is not a reason cited
in the text for using a prostitute?
a. You can have
sex without negotiation.
b. You can test
your sexual identity.
c. You can
obtain sexual variety.
d. You can have
sex without commitment.
Answer: b
34) Who of the
following is not a typical client of
prostitutes?
a. men who
travel frequently on business or who are from out of town
b. men who are
lonely
c. men who want
to humiliate their wives or retaliate against them
d. men who have
no other sexual outlets due to disability or impairment
Answer: c
35) Which of
the following statements does not
reflect the findings from a survey of Vancouver men arrested for soliciting?
a. They ranged
in age from 18 to 92 years.
b. More than
half were married or in serious relationships.
c. Many
exhibited deviant sexual tendencies and higher than average sex drives.
d. Incomes,
education, and ethnic backgrounds were similar to the general Vancouver
population.
Answer: c
36) Most male
prostitutes service
a. older,
wealthy women.
b. gay men.
c. married men
who want to experiment with gay sex.
d. bisexual
men.
Answer: b
37) What male
sex worker has the lowest status in the male sex trade?
a. punks
b. bar hustlers
c. drag
prostitutes
d. kept boys
Answer: b
38) “Punks” are
a. heterosexual
men posing as gay hustlers.
b. gay men.
c. male
versions of call girls.
d. prison
inmates receiving protection or goods for sex.
Answer: d
39) Male
prostitution is described in the text as
a. a relatively
rare occurrence.
b. a dangerous
enterprise.
c. an illegal
activity.
d. an
adolescent enterprise.
Answer: d
40) Studies
have shown that female sex workers were at greatest risk of STI infection from
sex with
a. younger
clients.
b. Johns.
c. older clients.
d. non-clients.
Answer: d
41) SEM stands
for
a. sexually
exposing material.
b. sexually
explicit movies.
c. sexually
erotic material.
d. sexually
explicit material.
Answer: d
42) Julian is a
“kept boy.” In the culture of male prostitution, what does this mean?
a. He has an
older male client who serves in a parental role and keeps him economically
secure.
b. He works
through an agency or escort service that serves wealthy clients.
c. He is a
prison inmate who is used for sex and rewarded with protection from other inmates.
d. He is a
streetwalker who frequents districts where men search for homosexual sex.
Answer: a
43) “Prurient”
means
a. pure.
b. tending to
excite lust; lewd.
c.
pornographic.
d. erotic.
Answer: b
44) Which of
the following is not one of the main
positions on sexually explicit material identified in the pornography debates?
a.
obscenity-based approach
b. liberal
position
c.
religious-based approach
d. pro-pornography
feminist approach
Answer: c
45) Which of
the following is not a reason that
feminists oppose pornography?
a. Pornography
portrays women as objects.
b. Pornography
presents women in dehumanizing ways.
c. Pornography
promotes gender inequality.
d. Pornography
challenges sexual stereotypes.
Answer: d
46) In defining
pornography as “writing, pictures, etc., intended to arouse desire,”
the most problematic word is
a. “desire.”
b. “intended.”
c. “arouse.”
d. “writing.”
Answer: b
47) Something
that offends community standards is
a. an
obscenity.
b.
pornographic.
c. erotica.
d. hard core SEM.
Answer: a
48) Legislative
bodies usually write laws about ________ rather than pornography.
a. obscenity
b. prostitution
c. erotica
d. SEM
Answer: a
49) SEM is
defined as
a. “written,
visual, or audiotaped material that is graphic and produced for purposes of
eliciting sexual arousal.”
b. “written
material that is graphic and produced for purposes of eliciting prurient
interest.”
c. “visual
material that is erotic but not considered obscene.”
d. “material
that does not fall within the obscenity laws of Canada but is often viewed negatively
by the public.”
Answer: a
50) In Canada,
an obscene publication is any publication in which the dominant characteristic
is the undue exploitation of
a. children.
b. violence.
c. sex.
d. women.
Answer: c
51) Erotica is
generally defined as
a. “any
literary or visual depiction that is obscene.”
b. “any
literary or visual depiction that is sexually explicit.”
c. “sexually
explicit material that doesn’t involve the degradation of women.”
d. “any
literary or visual depiction intended to arouse sexual desire.”
Answer: c
52) In Canada,
censorship and/or classification of films is
a. a federal
responsibility.
b. a provincial
responsibility.
c. a regional
responsibility.
d. discussed
and addressed on an individual basis.
Answer: b
53) In 2005,
legislation was passed to narrow the defence allowed for individuals accused of
possessing child pornography. The accused must prove that they were using the
material for legitimate purposes related to the administration of all of the
following except
a. justice.
b. science.
c. art.
d. recreation.
Answer: d
54) A survey of
Canadian university students (2005) found what percentage of men and women
accessed nude pictures online?
a. 95% men and
50% of women
b. 75% of men
and 25% of women
c. 50% of men
and 50% of women
d. 85% of men
and 75% of women
Answer: a
55) Which
statement is true regarding male or
female reactions to pornography?
a. Very few
women, and most men, are physiologically aroused by pornography.
b. Men are more
aroused by depictions of oral sex than women.
c. Both women
and men are physiologically aroused by pornography.
d. Women are
more aroused by depictions of intercourse than of oral sex.
Answer: c
56) A Canadian
commission on prostitution and pornography found that exposure to pornography
a. increased
the risk of committing a violent crime against women.
b. did not lead
to crimes of violence or sexual offenses.
c. led to
sexual offenses such as exhibitionism and voyeurism.
d. increased
the risk of committing a sexual assault.
Answer: b
57) Which
position on pornography argues that access to SEM is a matter of individual
liberty and free expression?
a. conservative position
b. Libertarian position
c.
pro-pornography feminist approach
d. liberal
position
Answer: d
58) Research
investigating links between pornography and violence or sexual aggression has
generally concluded that
a. pornography
increases sexual aggression in men but not women.
b. the use of
pornography with violent themes causes men to commit more crimes.
c. more
aggressive men are drawn to violent pornography.
d. there is no
correlation between pornography and violence in any subgroups of men studied.
Answer: c
59) A variety
of research on exposure of men to violent pornography has concluded that
a. exposure to
violent pornography does not lead to any attitudinal changes.
b. exposure to
violent pornography leads men to become more accepting of sexual assault myths.
c. exposure to
violence, not necessarily pornography, reinforces negative attitudes towards
women.
d. exposure to
violent pornography actually decreased arousal among men.
Answer: c
60)
Pro-pornography feminists believe that pornography can promote greater
a. gender
expression.
b. sexual
freedom.
c. sexual
satisfaction.
d. gender
equality.
Answer: d
61) Some
research suggests that repeated exposure to non-violent pornography
a. decreases
male aggression towards women.
b. affects
attitudes towards traditional sexual and family values.
c. increases
acceptance of sexual assault myths in both men and women.
d. results in
more extramarital affairs.
Answer: b
62) Brown
(2003) argues that prolonged exposure to pornography might foster
a.
dissatisfaction with the physical appearance of one’s partner.
b. attitudes of
disrespect for one’s partner.
c. acceptance
of marital sexual assault.
d. greater
sexual satisfaction with one’s intimate partner.
Answer: a
63) At least
_______ of internet visits involve sexually oriented content.
a. one-third
b. one-half
c. three-quarters
d. one-quarter
Answer: a
64) For each of the following decisions
regarding commercial sex, match the description with the correct title/name.
65)
Prostitution is illegal in Canada.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
66) In
Victorian England, prostitution was widely regarded as a necessary outlet for
men to satisfy their sexual appetites.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
67) In a
Compass poll (1998) of Canadians, people in their twenties were more accepting
of prostitution than older Canadians..
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
68) Not all
advertised massage and escort services are fronts for prostitution.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
69) Massage
parlour workers occupy the bottom rung in the hierarchy of sex work.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
70) Prostitutes
are rarely physically abused by their pimps.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
71) Massage
parlours escape prosecution if they do not offer sexual services that include
penetration and oral sex.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
72) Hustlers
typically are not attached to a pimp; they generally make contacts with clients
in gay bars and social clubs or by working the streets.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
73) Massage
parlours can be a front for sex work.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
74) The
trafficking of young boys and girls for sexual exploitation is a major
component of the global business of human trafficking.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
75) The
exchange of sex for money violates the Criminal Code of Canada.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
76) Most sex
workers tend to come from similar backgrounds.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
77) Typical
customers of prostitutes have difficulty forming sexual relationships with
other women.
a. True
b. False Answer: b
78) Some men
who are compulsive users of prostitutes suffer from a complex where they see
women as either sinners or saints.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
79) Stripping
is not considered to be a type of sex work.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
80) Cybersex
compulsives are likened to drug addicts in the text.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
81) The Fraser
Commission Report concluded that the available evidence did not support the
belief that pornography leads to such antisocial behavior as violent crime.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
82) Researchers
have found that both men and women are physiologically aroused by sexually
explicit material.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
83) Research
has not proven conclusively that there is a link between men’s use of
pornography and violent sexual behaviour.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
84) The Supreme
Court of Canada provides provincial film censorship boards with clear
definitions of what is deemed obscene.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
85) Fifty
percent of Canadians believe that some aspects of prostitution that are
currently illegal should be legalized.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
86) Studies
indicate that convicted child sex offenders who view violent pornography are
more likely to reoffend.
a. True
b. False Answer: a
87) Research
has shown that exposing men to sexually explicit material causes men to become
more accepting of sexual assault myths.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
88) Research
shows that the sexual explicitness in violent SEM reinforces the sexual
behaviour of sex offenders.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
89) Repeated
exposure to non-violent SEM has little impact on an individual’s attitudes
towards relationships and sexual values.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
90) Identify
and discuss five of the most common motives for engaging in sexual activity
with sex worker.
Answer:
– sex without
negotiation; sex without emotional commitment; sex for eroticism and variety;
prostitution as a social outlet; sex away from home; difficulty attracting a
partner
91) Discuss
several factors that may lead to the decision to engage in sex work.
Answer:
– homelessness,
poverty, sexual abuse, runaway
– good pay
(escorts, strippers), control over work
– no one factor
that leads women to sex work
– male sex workers have similar
reasons for engaging in sex work; research with male sex workers also mentions
substance abuse, sexual abuse
92) Distinguish
between pornography, obscenity, and erotica. Give examples of each.
Answer:
– pornography:
written, visual, or audiotaped material that is sexually explicit and produced
for the purposes of eliciting or enhancing sexual arousal; negative connotation
and associated with SEM that is violent and/or degrading
– obscenity:
that which offends people’s feelings or goes beyond prevailing standards of
decency or modesty
– erotica: SEM that did not involve
violence or degradation against women
93) Discuss the
difficulties involved in censorship of photos, such as the one presented on the
cover of Echo magazine (World of
Diversity. Should this photo be censored?).
Answer:
– opinion
– difficult to define what is
obscene or offensive; how to define community standards
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference:
483
Skill:
Conceptual
94) Discuss the
Butler case and the outcomes regarding law that resulted from this case.
Answer:
– Butler:
Winnipeg store that sold sexually explicit videos; he argued that he had a
right according to the Charter of Rights and Freedoms.
– Outcome: three categories for
obscenity. First involves material that mixes sex with violence and/or includes
children; second includes material that involves sex and degradation and is
seen as thus encouraging violence or harm to women; third involves SEM that is
considered nonviolent and not degrading to women and does not include children
(not seen as obscene)
95) Give four
examples of advertisements you recently encountered that use sex to sell.
Evaluate these ads in terms of how women and/or men were portrayed or utilized.
Answer:
– beer ads,
perfume ads, alcohol ads, fitness ads, food ads, clothing ads
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