CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-120 ACTUAL TEST Latest 316 Q&A

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CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-120 ACTUAL TEST Latest 316 Q&A

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Cisco 200-120
CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA
Version: 19.0
Topic 1, Operation of IP Data Networks
QUESTION NO: 1
Refer to the exhibit:
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address
0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address
0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of
192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the TTL
being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from source to
destination.
QUESTION NO: 2
Refer to the exhibit.
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Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a
unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to
communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to
communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
If Subnet Mask is 255.255.255.128 the hosts vary from x.x.x.0 – x.x.x.127 & x.x.x.128- x.x.x.255,so
the IP Addresses of 2 hosts fall in different subnets so each interface needs an IP an address so
that they can communicate each other.
If Subnet Mask is 255.255.255.0 the 2 specified hosts fall in different subnets so they need a
Layer 3 device to communicate.
If Subnet Mask is 255.255.254.0 the 2 specified hosts are in same subnet so are in network
address and can be accommodated in same Layer 2 domain and can communicate with each
other directly using the Layer 2 address.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the
receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
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A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E
Explanation:
This question is to examine the OSI reference model.
The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended
communication partner and determining whether sufficient resources for the intended
communication exist.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE
network. The network’s DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTE-connected
interface (the router’s serial interface).
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A modem modulates outgoing digital signals from a computer or other digital device to analog
signals for a conventional copper twisted pair telephone line and demodulates the incoming
analog signal and converts it to a digital signal for the digital device. A CSU/DSU is used between
two digital lines –
For more explanation of answer D, in telephony the local loop (also referred to as a subscriber
line) is the physical link or circuit that connects from the demarcation point of the customer
premises to the edge of the carrier or telecommunications service provider’s network. Therefore a
modem terminates an analog local loop is correct.
QUESTION NO: 5
Refer to the exhibit.
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Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?
A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
From the CCNA ICND2 Exam book: “Routers decrement the TTL by 1 every time they forward a
packet; if a router decrements the TTL to 0, it throws away the packet. This prevents packets from
rotating forever.” I want to make it clear that before the router forwards a packet, the TTL is still
remain the same. For example in the topology above, pings to S0/1 and S0/0 of Router 2 have the
same TTL.
The picture below shows TTL values for each interface of each router and for Host B. Notice that
Host A initializes ICMP packet with a TTL of 255:
QUESTION NO: 6
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an
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FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network
administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.
QUESTION NO: 7
Refer to the exhibit.
After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this
transmission?
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A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
F. Exhibit F
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a host needs to reach a device on another subnet, the ARP cache entry will be that of the
Ethernet address of the local router (default gateway) for the physical MAC address. The
destination IP address will not change, and will be that of the remote host (HostB).
QUESTION NO: 8
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted
pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
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A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize
CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or
hub).
QUESTION NO: 9
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged.
The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Data Link layer provides the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification,
network topology, and flow control. The Data Link layer formats the message into pieces, each
called a data frame, and adds a customized header containing the hardware destination and
source address. Protocols Data Unit (PDU) on Datalink layer is called frame. According to this
question the frame is damaged and discarded which will happen at the Data Link layer.
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose
two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control
information.
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B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the
segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination
host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to
a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The Application Layer (Layer 7) refers to communications services to applications and is the
interface between the network and the application. Examples include. Telnet, HTTP, FTP, Internet
browsers, NFS, SMTP gateways, SNMP, X.400 mail, and FTAM.
The Presentation Layer (Layer 6) defining data formats, such as ASCII text, EBCDIC text, binary,
BCD, and JPEG. Encryption also is defined as a presentation layer service. Examples include.
JPEG, ASCII, EBCDIC, TIFF, GIF, PICT, encryption, MPEG, and MIDI.
The Session Layer (Layer 5) defines how to start, control, and end communication sessions. This
includes the control and management of multiple bidirectional messages so that the application
can be notified if only some of a series of messages are completed. This allows the presentation
layer to have a seamless view of an incoming stream of data. The presentation layer can be
presented with data if all flows occur in some cases. Examples include. RPC, SQL, NFS, NetBios
names, AppleTalk ASP, and DECnet SCP
The Transport Layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of protocols. The
most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The transport layer may
provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow control to prevent unnecessary
congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the network can accommodate, or it might not,
depending on the choice of protocols. Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to
applications on the same host is also performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when
packets arrive out of order is included. Examples include. TCP, UDP, and SPX.
The Network Layer (Layer 3) defines end-to-end delivery of packets and defines logical
addressing to accomplish this. It also defines how routing works and how routes are learned; and
how to fragment a packet into smaller packets to accommodate media with smaller maximum
transmission unit sizes. Examples include. IP, IPX, AppleTalk DDP, and ICMP. Both IP and IPX
define logical addressing, routing, the learning of routing information, and end-to-end delivery
rules. The IP and IPX protocols most closely match the OSI network layer (Layer 3) and are called
Layer 3 protocols because their functions most closely match OSI’s Layer 3.
The Data Link Layer (Layer 2) is concerned with getting data across one particular link or medium.
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The data link protocols define delivery across an individual link. These protocols are necessarily
concerned with the type of media in use. Examples includE. IEEE 802.3/802.2, HDLC, Frame
Relay, PPP, FDDI, ATM, and IEEE 802.5/802.2.
QUESTION NO: 11
Refer to the graphic.
Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames
received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A
Answer: A
Explanation:
Whereas switches can only examine and forward packets based on the contents of the MAC
header, routers can look further into the packet to discover the network for which a packet is
destined. Routers make forwarding decisions based on the packet’s network-layer header (such
as an IPX header or IP header). These network-layer headers contain source and destination
network addresses. Local devices address packets to the router’s MAC address in the MAC
header. After receiving the packets, the router must perform the following steps:
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1. Check the incoming packet for corruption, and remove the MAC header . The router checks the
packet for MAC-layer errors. The router then strips off the MAC header and examines the networklayer
header to determine what to do with the packet.
2. Examine the age of the packet. The router must ensure that the packet has not come too far to
be forwarded. For example, IPX headers contain a hop count. By default, 15 hops is the maximum
number of hops (or routers) that a packet can cross. If a packet has a hop count of 15, the router
discards the packet. IP headers contain a Time to Live (TTL) value. Unlike the IPX hop count,
which increments as the packet is forwarded through each router, the IP TTL value decrements as
the IP packet is forwarded through each router. If an IP packet has a TTL value of 1, the router
discards the packet. A router cannot decrement the TTL value to 1 and then forward the packet.
3. Determine the route to the destination. Routers maintain a routing table that lists available
networks, the direction to the desired network (the outgoing interface number), and the distance to
those networks. After determining which direction to forward the packet, the router must build a
new header. (If you want to read the IP routing tables on a Windows 95/98 workstation, type
ROUTE PRINT in the DOS box.)
4. Build the new MAC header and forward the packet. Finally, the router builds a new MAC header
for the packet. The MAC header includes the router’s MAC address and the final destination’s
MAC address or the MAC address of the next router in the path.
QUESTION NO: 12
Refer to the exhibit.
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What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with
one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
B. The number of collision domains would decrease.
C. The number of collision domains would increase.
D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
F. The number of broadcast domains would increase.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Basically, a collision domain is a network segment that allows normal network traffic to flow back
and forth. In the old days of hubs, this meant you had a lot of collisions, and the old CSMA/CD
would be working overtime to try to get those packets re-sent every time there was a collision on
the wire (since ethernet allows only one host to be transmitting at once without there being a traffic
jam). With switches, you break up collision domains by switching packets bound for other collision
domains. These days, since we mostly use switches to connect computers to the network, you
generally have one collision domain to a PC.
Broadcast domains are exactly what they imply: they are network segments that allow broadcasts
to be sent across them. Since switches and bridges allow for broadcast traffic to go unswitched,
broadcasts can traverse collision domains freely. Routers, however, don’t allow broadcasts
through by default, so when a broadcast hits a router (or the perimeter of a VLAN), it doesn’t get
forwarded. The simple way to look at it is this way: switches break up collision domains, while
routers (and VLANs) break up collision domains and broadcast domains. Also, a broadcast
domain can contain multiple collision domains, but a collision domain can never have more than
one broadcast domain associated with it.
Collision Domain: A group of Ethernet or Fast Ethernet devices in a CSMA/CD LAN that are
connected by repeaters and compete for access on the network. Only one device in the collision
domain may transmit at any one time, and the other devices in the domain listen to the network in
order to avoid data collisions. A collision domain is sometimes referred to as an Ethernet segment.
Broadcast Domain: Broadcasting sends a message to everyone on the local network (subnet). An
example for Broadcasting would be DHCP Request from a Client PC. The Client is asking for a IP
Address, but the client does not know how to reach the DHCP Server. So the client sends a DHCP
Discover packet to EVERY PC in the local subnet (Broadcast). But only the DHCP Server will
answer to the Request.
How to count them?
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Broadcast Domain:
No matter how many hosts or devices are connected together, if they are connected with a
repeater, hub, switch or bridge, all these devices are in ONE Broadcast domain (assuming a
single VLAN). A Router is used to separate Broadcast-Domains (we could also call them Subnets
– or call them VLANs).
So, if a router stands between all these devices, we have TWO broadcast domains.
Collision Domain:
Each connection from a single PC to a Layer 2 switch is ONE Collision domain. For example, if 5
PCs are connected with separate cables to a switch, we have 5 Collision domains. If this switch is
connected to another switch or a router, we have one collision domain more.
If 5 Devices are connected to a Hub, this is ONE Collision Domain. Each device that is connected
to a Layer 1 device (repeater, hub) will reside in ONE single collision domain.
QUESTION NO: 13
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2
and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will
contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast
domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation: Explanation
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a
network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device
gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices.
Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own
collision domain -> .
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of
collision domains.
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QUESTION NO: 14
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B
Explanation:
The picture below shows the comparison between TCP/IP model & OSI model. Notice that the
Internet Layer of TCP/IP is equivalent to the Network Layer which is responsible for routing
decision.
QUESTION NO: 15
Refer to exhibit:
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Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Answer: C,F
Explanation: Explanation
While transferring data through many different networks, the source and destination IP addresses
are not changed. Only the source and destination MAC addresses are changed. So in this case
Host A will use the IP address of Host C and the MAC address of E0 interface to send data. When
the router receives this data, it replaces the source MAC address with it own E1 interface’s MAC
address and replaces the destination MAC address with Host C’s MAC address before sending to
Host C .
QUESTION NO: 16
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
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D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Physical addresses or MAC addresses are used to identify devices at layer 2.
MAC addresses are only used to communicate on the same network. To communicate on different
network we have to use Layer 3 addresses (IP addresses) -> B is not correct.
Layer 2 frame and Layer 3 packet can be recognized via headers. Layer 3 packet also contains
physical address ->
On Ethernet, each frame has the same priority to transmit by default ->
All devices need a physical address to identify itself. If not, they can not communicate ->
QUESTION NO: 17
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?
A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority
Answer: E
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Explanation:
To elect the root bridge in the LAN, first check the priority value. The switch having the lowest
priority will win the election process. If Priority Value is the same then it checks the MAC Address;
the switch having the lowest MAC Address will become the root bridge. In this case, switch C has
the lowest MAC Address so it becomes the root bridge.
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from
e0 interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from e1 interface to the right is another
broadcast domain ->.
Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the
left of the router (because hub doesn’t break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision
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domains on the right of the router (1 collision domain from e1 interface to the switch + 5 collision
domains for 5 PCs in Production) ->
QUESTION NO: 19
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: C,D
Explanation: Explanation
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If
more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the
destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before
attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is
occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is
sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.
QUESTION NO: 20
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local
network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without
decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
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D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single
physical interface.
QUESTION NO: 21
Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.
Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)
A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be
reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Router C will
send ICMP packets to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
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QUESTION NO: 22
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?
A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog
signals from a router to a leased line.
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital
signals from a router to a leased line.
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog
signals from a router to a phone line.
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital
signals from a router to a phone line.
Answer: D
Explanation:
CSU/DSU is used to convert digital signals from a router to a network circuit such as a T1, while a
modem is used to convert digital signals over a regular POTS line.
QUESTION NO: 23 DRAG DROP
Answer:
Explanation:
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To remember which type of cable you should use, follow these tips:
– To connect two serial interfaces of 2 routers we use serial cable– To specify when we use
crossover cable or straight-through cable, we should remember:Group 1: Router, Host, Server
Group 2: Hub, SwitchOne device in group 1 + One device in group 2: use straight-through cable
Two devices in the same group: use crossover cable
For example: we use straight-through cable to connect switch to router, switch to host, hub to host,
hub to server… and we use crossover cable to connect switch to switch, switch to hub, router to
router, host to host… )
QUESTION NO: 24 DRAG DROP
Answer:
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Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25 DRAG DROP
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Answer:
Explanation:
Source Mac Address Destination Mac Address Source IP address Destination MAC address
MAC 0000.0c89.3333 MAC 0000.0c89.9999 IP 172.16.34.250 IP 172.16.21.7
QUESTION NO: 26 DRAG DROP
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Answer:
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27 DRAG DROP
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Answer:
Explanation:
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Topic 2, LAN Switching Technologies
QUESTION NO: 28
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant
trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form,
even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
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C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the output shown the switchport (layer 2 Switching) is enabled and the port is in
access mode. To make a trunk link the port should configured as a trunk port, not an access port,
by using the following command: (Config-if)#switchport mode trunk
QUESTION NO: 29
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation:
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states
(discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning,
forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.
QUESTION NO: 30
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3
command in interface configuration mode?
A. The command is rejected.
B. The port turns amber.
C. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
D. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The “switchport access vlan 3” will put that interface as belonging to VLAN 3 while also updated
the VLAN database automatically to include VLAN 3.
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QUESTION NO: 31
What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot
switch in a spanning-tree topology?
A. path cost
B. lowest port MAC address
C. VTP revision number
D. highest port priority number
E. port priority number and MAC address
Answer: A
Explanation: The path cost to the root bridge is the most important value to determine which port
will become the root port on each non-root switch. In particular, the port with lowest cost to the root
bridge will become root port (on non-root switch).
QUESTION NO: 32
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?
A. the operation of VTP
B. a method of VLAN trunking
C. an approach to wireless LAN communication
D. the process for root bridge selection
E. VLAN pruning
Answer: B
Explanation:
A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish
this, one switch must send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame
belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL
and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier in a Layer 2 frame.
The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers.
With 802.1Q, a network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical
devices.
Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q
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trunk link provides VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a
trunk port.
QUESTION NO: 33
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1
do with this data?
A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data
originated.
D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question tests the operating principles of the Layer 2 switch. Check the MAC address table of
Switch1 and find that the MAC address of the host does not exist in the table. Switch1 will flood
the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated to determine which port
the host is located in.
Switches work as follows:
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In output there is no MAC address of give host so switch floods to all ports except the source port.
QUESTION NO: 34
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
B. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
C. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic
A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By
default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the native VLAN configured for the port. The native
VLAN is VLAN 1 by default.
QUESTION NO: 35
Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network?
(Choose two.)
A. 802.1d
B. VTP
C. 802.1q
D. STP
E. SAP
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
This question is to examine the STP protocol.
STP (802.1d) is used to prevent Layer 2 loops.
802.1q is a Frame Relay protocol which belongs to VLAN.
SAP is a concept of the OSI model.
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QUESTION NO: 36
Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?
A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78
Answer: A
Explanation:
The root bridge of the spanning tree is the bridge with the smallest (lowest) bridge ID. Each bridge
has a configurable priority number and a MAC Address; the bridge ID contains both numbers
combined together – Bridge priority + MAC (32768.0200.0000.1111). The Bridge priority default is
32768 and can only be configured in multiples of 4096(Spanning tree uses the 12 bits extended
system ID). To compare two bridge IDs, the priority is compared first, as if looking at a real number
anything less than 32768…will become the target of being the root. If two bridges have equal
priority then the MAC addresses are compared; for example, if switches A
(MAC=0200.0000.1111) and B (MAC=0200.0000.2222) both have a priority of 32768 then switch
A will be selected as the root bridge.
In this case, 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66 would be the bridge because it has a lower priority and
MAC address.
QUESTION NO: 37
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment
existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the
switch?
A. More collision domains will be created.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Each VLAN creates its own broadcast domain. Since this is a full duplex switch, each port is a
separate collision domain.
QUESTION NO: 38
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the
same network infrastructure.
C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the
same network infrastructure.
D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus
reducing their size.
E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus
increasing their size.
F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong
to the same broadcast domain.
G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Benefits of VLANs
VLAN is a network structure which allows users to communicate while in different locations by
sharing one multicast domain and a single broadcast. They provide numerous networking benefits
and have become popular in the market. For instance, it helps reduce administrative costs when
users are geographically dispersed.
1. Inexpensive
The popularity of VLANs is due to the fact that changes, adds, and moves can be attained simply
by making necessary configurations on the VLAN port. Time-consuming, re-addressing, and host
reconfigurations is now a thing of the past, because network configuration can be made at ease
when need arises.
2. Better management
A VLAN typically solve the scalability issues that exist in a large network by breaking the main
domain into several VLAN groups or smaller broadcast configurations, thereby encourage better
control of multicast traffic as well as broadcast domains.
3. Improves network security
High-security can be positioned in different VLAN groups to ensure that non-members cannot
receive their broadcasts. On the other hand, a router is added and workgroups relocated into
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centralized locations.
4. Enhances performance
A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the
same network infrastructure.
5. Segment multiple networks
VLANs are typically used to achieve multiple purposes. They are popularly used to reduce
broadcast traffic. Each VLAN creates a separate, smaller broadcast domain.
6. Better administration
VLANs facilitate grouping of multiple geographical stations. When VLAN users move to another
physical location, the network does not have to be configured.
QUESTION NO: 39
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over
Fast Ethernet?
A. 802.3ad
B. 802.1w
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1Q
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link
between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802.1Q) to be used.
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.
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F. They simplify switch administration.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation: Explanation
When using VLAN the number and size of collision domains remain the same ->
VLANs allow to group users by function, not by location or geography -> .
VLANs help minimize the incorrect configuration of VLANs so it enhances the security of the
network -> .
VLAN increases the size of broadcast domains but does not decrease the number of collision
domains ->
VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains which increase the utilization of the links. It is also a big advantage of VLAN -> .
VLANs are useful but they are more complex and need more administration ->
QUESTION NO: 41
Refer to the exhibit.
A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the
management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to
accomplish this task?
A. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
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B. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
D. SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
E. SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
To remote access to SwitchB, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch.
Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN (but in fact it is not secure).
In the exhibit, we can recognize that the Management Workstation is in a different subnet from the
SwitchB. For intersubnetwork communication to occur, you must configure at least one default
gateway. This default gateway is used to forward traffic originating from the switch only, not to
forward traffic sent by devices connected to the switch.
QUESTION NO: 42
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml
#states
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QUESTION NO: 43
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco
switch interface? (Choose two.)
A. show interface trunk
B. show interface interface
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interface vlan
E. show interface switchport
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Example output from these two commands:
SW3#show interface trunk
Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlanFa0/19 auto n-802.1q trunking 1Fa0/20 auto n-802.1q
trunking 1Fa0/21 auto n-802.1q trunking 1Fa0/22 auto n-802.1q trunking 1
Port Vlans allowed on trunkFa0/19 1-4094Fa0/20 1-4094Fa0/21 1-4094Fa0/22 1-4094
SW1#show interface fast 0/2 switchportName: Fa0/2Switchport: EnabledAdministrative Mode:
dynamic desirableOperational Mode: downAdministrative Trunking Encapsulation:
dot1qNegotiation of TrunkinG. OnAccess Mode VLAN: 1 (default)Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1
(default)Voice VLAN: none
QUESTION NO: 44
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
A. spanning-tree uplinkfast
B. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
C. spanning-tree backbonefast
D. spanning-tree mode mst
Answer: B
Explanation:
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) is an enhancement of the original STP 802.1D protocol.
The RSTP 802.1w protocol is an IEEE open implementation. Cisco has its own proprietary
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implementation of RSTP, that includes the benefits of its Per-VLAN spanning tree protocols, called
Rapid-PVST+.
To activate the Rapid-PVST+ protocol: switch(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
QUESTION NO: 45
Refer to the exhibit.
All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA
can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output
shown, what is the most likely problem?
A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the
switches.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to pass traffic from VLANs on different switches, the connections between the switches
must be configured as trunk ports.
QUESTION NO: 46
Refer to the exhibit.
Which WAN protocol is being used?
A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. Frame Relay
D. PPP
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question is to examine the show int command.
According to the information provided in the exhibit, we can know that the data link protocol used
in this network is the Frame Relay protocol.
“LMI enq sent…”
QUESTION NO: 47
Refer to the exhibit.
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Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface
FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning
Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the port is in the blocked status, we must assume that there is a shorter path to the root
bridge elsewhere.
QUESTION NO: 48
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and
since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.
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QUESTION NO: 49
Refer to the exhibit.
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, and this switch has a bridge ID priority of
32768, which is higher than the roots priority of 20481.
QUESTION NO: 50
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)
A. VTP
B. 802.1q
C. IGP
D. ISL
E. 802.3u
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Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard 802.1q
or the Cisco proprietary ISL. Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it is
standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.
QUESTION NO: 51
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and
removed on a Cisco switch?
A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or
removed.
VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for
Ethernet.
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QUESTION NO: 52
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the
source MAC address and the MAC address table.
B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different
VLAN.
D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across
the ports.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations
are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.
QUESTION NO: 53
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.
Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth?
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(Choose three.)
A. Switch A – Fa0/0
B. Switch A – Fa0/1
C. Switch B – Fa0/0
D. Switch B – Fa0/1
E. Switch C – Fa0/0
F. Switch C – Fa0/1
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
This question is to check the spanning tree election problem.
1. First, select the root bridge, which can be accomplished by comparing the bridge ID, the
smallest will be selected. Bridge-id= bridge priority + MAC address. The three switches in the
figure all have the default priority, so we should compare the MAC address, it is easy to find that
SwitchB is the root bridge.
2. Select the root port on the non-root bridge, which can be completed through comparing root
path cost. The smallest will be selected as the root port.
3. Next, select the Designated Port. First, compare the path cost, if the costs happen to be the
same, then compare the BID, still the smallest will be selected. Each link has a DP. Based on the
exhibit above, we can find DP on each link. The DP on the link between SwitchA and SwitchC is
SwitchA’Fa0/1, because it has the smallest MAC address.
QUESTION NO: 54
Refer to the exhibit.
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How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
C. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
Answer: B
Explanation:
IN order for multiple VLANs to cross switches, the connection between the switches must be a
trunk. The “switchport mode trunk” command is all that is needed, the individual VLANs should not
be listed over that trunk interface.
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QUESTION NO: 55
Refer to the exhibit.
A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2.
What causes this behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches
D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
Answer: C
Explanation:
Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are
different so although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.
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QUESTION NO: 56
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
One big disadvantage of STP is the low convergence which is very important in switched network.
To overcome this problem, in 2001, the IEEE with document 802.1w introduced an evolution of the
Spanning Tree Protocol: Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), which significantly reduces the
convergence time after a topology change occurs in the network. While STP can take 30 to 50
seconds to transit from a blocking state to a forwarding state, RSTP is typically able to respond
less than 10 seconds of a physical link failure.
RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are
allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to
converge.
RSTP bridge port roles:
* Root port – A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost*
Designated port – A forwarding port for every LAN segment* Alternate port – A best alternate
path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to
the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port for the segment.* Backup port – A
backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup
port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment (collision domain). To
have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.* Disabled port
– Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port
QUESTION NO: 57
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
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A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units
(BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in
which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge -> RSTP operates at Layer 2 – Data Link
layer -> .
QUESTION NO: 58
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Answer: F
Explanation:
When a frame is received, the switch looks at the destination hardware address and finds the
interface if it is in its MAC address table. If the address is unknown, the frame is broadcast on all
interfaces except the one it was received on.
QUESTION NO: 59
Refer to the exhibit.
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Which statement is true?
A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
Only non-root bridge can have root port. Fa0/11 is the root port so we can confirm this switch is
not the root bridge ->
From the output we learn this switch is running Rapid STP, not PVST ->
0017.596d.1580 is the MAC address of this switch, not of the root bridge. The MAC address of the
root bridge is 0017.596d.2a00 ->
All of the interface roles of the root bridge are designated. SwitchA has one Root port and 1
Alternative port so it is not the root bridge.
QUESTION NO: 60
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. added security
B. dedicated bandwidth
C. provides segmentation
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D. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
E. contains collisions
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A VLAN is a switched network that is logically segmented on an organizational basis, by functions,
project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis.
Security:
VLANs also improve security by isolating groups. High-security users can be grouped into a
VLAN, possible on the same physical segment, and no users outside that VLAN can communicate
with them
LAN Segmentation
VLANs allow logical network topologies to overlay the physical switched infrastructure such that
any arbitrary collection of LAN ports can be combined into an autonomous user group or
community of interest. The technology logically segments the network into separate Layer 2
broadcast domains whereby packets are switched between ports designated to be within the same
VLAN. By containing traffic originating on a particular LAN only to other LANs in the same VLAN,
switched virtual networks avoid wasting bandwidth.
QUESTION NO: 61
Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect
through a switch in the same LAN?
A. ping address
B. tracert address
C. traceroute address
D. arp address
Answer: A
Explanation:
ICMP pings are used to verify connectivity between two IP hosts. Traceroute is used to verify the
router hop path traffic will take but in this case since the hosts are in the same LAN there will be
no router hops involved.
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QUESTION NO: 62
Based on the network shown in the graphic
Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that
should be used to prevent the problem?
A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. switching loops, STP
Answer: F
Explanation: The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when
switches or bridges are interconnected via multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the
802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with other switches to detect loops, and
then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm guarantees that
there is one and only one active path between two network devices.
QUESTION NO: 63
Refer to the exhibit.
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Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the
exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk
ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
In order for multiple VLANs to connect to a single physical interface on a Cisco router,
subinterfaces must be used, one for each VLAN. This is known as the router on a stick
configuration. Also, for any trunk to be formed, both ends of the trunk must agree on the
encapsulation type, so each one must be configured for 802.1q or ISL.
QUESTION NO: 64
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence
following switched network topology changes.
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B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
802.1Q protocol, or Virtual Bridged Local Area Networks protocol, mainly stipulates the realization
of the VLAN. 802.1Q is a standardized relay method that inserts 4 bytes field into the original
Ethernet frame and re-calculate the FCS. 802.1Q frame relay supports two types of frame: marked
and non-marked. Non-marked frame carries no VLAN identification information.
QUESTION NO: 65
Refer to the exhibit.
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to
run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the
correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
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C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation: Explanation
The question says “no other configuration changes have been made” so we can understand these
switches have the same bridge priority. Switch C has lowest MAC address so it will become root
bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports.
Because SwitchC is the root bridge so the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and
SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports..
Now we come to the most difficult part of this question: SwitchB must have a root port so which
port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost.
In general, “cost” is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link,
the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:
SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must
calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated
from the “cost to the root bridge” of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to
the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in
the BPDU.
One more thing to notice is that a root bridge always advertises the cost to the root bridge (itself)
with an initial value of 0.
Now let’s have a look at the topology again
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SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of
1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can
reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and
SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses
Gi0/1 as its root port ->
Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather
easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be
designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.
Below summaries all the port roles of these switches:
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+ DP: Designated Port (forwarding state)
+ RP: Root Port (forwarding state)
+ AP: Alternative Port (blocking state)
QUESTION NO: 66
Refer to the exhibit.
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The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A.
However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from host B
fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?
A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
B. The switch interface connected to the router is down.
C. Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.
D. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
E. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ping was successful form host B to other hosts because of intervlan routing configured on router.
But to manage switch via telnet the VLAN32 on the switch needs to be configured interface vlan32
along with ip address and its appropriate default-gateway address.
Since VLAN1 interface is already configure on switch Host A was able to telnet switch.
QUESTION NO: 67
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that
services the printers?
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A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Printers are connected by hubs. Decide the switch that provides the spanning-tree designated port
role between Switch3 and Switch4. They have the same priority 32768. Compare their MAC
addresses. Switch3 with a smaller MAC address will provide a designated port for printers.
QUESTION NO: 68
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The PVST+ provides Layer 2 load-balancing for the VLAN on which it runs. You can create
different logical topologies by using the VLANs on your network to ensure that all of your links are
used but that no one link is oversubscribed. Each instance of PVST+ on a VLAN has a single root
switch. This root switch propagates the spanning-tree information associated with that VLAN to all
other switches in the network. Because each switch has the same information about the network,
this process ensures that the network topology is maintained and optimized per VLAN.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/12.2_55_se
/configuration/guide/swstp.html
QUESTION NO: 69
Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
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C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
These are the different types of trunk modes:
QUESTION NO: 70
Refer to Exhibit:
How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is
configured on the switches?
A. one
B. two
C. six
D. twelve
Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation
Only router can break up broadcast domains but in this exhibit no router is used so there is only 1
broadcast domain.
For your information, there are 7 collision domains in this exhibit (6 collision domains between
hubs & switches + 1 collision between the two switches).
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QUESTION NO: 71
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
By default, 802.1Q trunk defined Native VLAN in order to forward unmarked frame. Switches can
forward Layer 2 frame from Native VLAN on unmarked trunks port. Receiver switches will transmit
all unmarked packets to Native VLAN. Native VLAN is the default VLAN configuration of port. Note
for the 802.1Q trunk ports between two devices, the same Native VLAN configuration is required
on both sides of the link. If the Native VLAN in 802.1Q trunk ports on same trunk link is properly
configured, it could lead to layer 2 loops. The 802.1Q trunk link transmits VLAN information
through Ethernet.
QUESTION NO: 72
Refer to the exhibit.
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The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose
three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation: Explanation
From the output, we see that all ports are in designated role (forwarding state).
The command “show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don’t
know how many VLAN exists in this switch ->
The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority
32768.
All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type “p2p”, which means Point-to-point
environment – not a shared media.
The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not
guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs.
QUESTION NO: 73
Refer to the exhibit.
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding
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role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a
lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so
both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4.
Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But
how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives
from Switch3. A BPDU is superior to another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID
2. A lower path cost to the Root
3. A lower Sending Bridge ID
4. A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3
have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID.
The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port
index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will
compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is
inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and
block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role).
QUESTION NO: 74
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or
fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
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Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches
have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge
is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.
QUESTION NO: 75
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
These are the different types of trunk modes:
QUESTION NO: 76
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
When network topology changes, rapid spanning tree protocol (IEEE802.1W, referred to as RSTP)
will speed up significantly the speed to re-calculate spanning tree. RSTP not only defines the role
of other ports: alternative port and backup port, but also defines status of 3 ports: discarding
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status, learning status, forwarding status.
RSTP is 802.1D standard evolution, not revolution. It retains most of the parameters, and makes
no changes.
QUESTION NO: 77
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
B. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5.
C. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.
D. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
E. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
F. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.
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Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Carefully observe the information given after command show. Fa0/1 is connected to Switch2,
seven MAC addresses correspond to Fa0/1, and these MAC are in different VLAN. From this we
know that Fa0/1 is the trunk interface.
From the information given by show cdp neighbors we find that there is no Fa0/5 in CDP neighbor.
However, F0/5 corresponds to two MAC addresses in the same VLAN. Thus we know that Fa0/5
is connected to a Hub.
Based on the output shown, there are multiple MAC addresses from different VLANs attached to
the FastEthernet 0/1 interface. Only trunks are able to pass information from devices in multiple
VLANs.
QUESTION NO: 78
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch
configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Answer: B
Explanation:
Each switch in your network will have a Bridge ID Priority value, more commonly referred to as a
BID. This BID is a combination of a default priority value and the switch’s MAC address, with the
priority value listed first. The lowest BID will win the election process.
For example, if a Cisco switch has the default priority value of 32,768 and a MAC address of 11-
22-33-44-55-66, the BID would be 32768:11-22-33-44-55-66. Therefore, if the switch priority is left
at the default, the MAC address is the deciding factor in the root bridge election.
QUESTION NO: 79
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
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A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.
Answer: A,E,F
Explanation:
VLAN technology is often used in practice, because it can better control layer2 broadcast to
improve network security. This makes network more flexible and scalable.
Packet filtering is a function of firewall instead of VLAN.
QUESTION NO: 80
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An
802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but
on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.
What will happen in this scenario?
A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
A “native VLAN mismatch” error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an
802.1Q link. “VLAN mismatch” can cause traffic from one vlan to leak into another vlan.
QUESTION NO: 81
Refer to the exhibit.
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A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents
this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this
design?
A. This design will function as intended.
B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
Each interface on a router must be in a different network. If two interfaces are in the same
network, the router will not accept it and show error when the administrator assigns it.
QUESTION NO: 82
Refer to the exhibit.
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A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10
and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the
Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two
switches. What could be the problem?
A. The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
B. The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.
C. At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to
communicate.
D. Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
E. A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the
same VLAN on Sw12.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order for hosts in the same VLAN to communicate with each other over multiple switches, those
switches need to be configured as trunks on their connected interfaces so that they can pass
traffic from multiple VLANs.
QUESTION NO: 83
Refer to the exhibit.
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Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?
A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Here we can see that this port is configured for full duplex, so the next step would be to check the
duplex setting of the port on the other switch. A mismatched trunk encapsulation would not result
in input errors and CRC errors.
Topic 3, IP addressing (IPv4 / IPv6)
QUESTION NO: 84
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on
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the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and
subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252
Answer: B
Explanation:
A subnet mask of 255.255.255.248 will allow for up to 6 hosts to reside in this network. A subnet
mask of 255.255.255.252 will allow for only 2 usable IP addresses, since we can not use the
network or broadcast address.
QUESTION NO: 85
Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct
network address?
A. 172.16.16.0
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 172.16.24.0
D. 172.16.28.0
Answer: A
Explanation:
For this example, the network range is 172.16.16.1 – 172.16.31.254, the network address is
172.16.16.0 and the broadcast IP address is 172.16.31.255.
QUESTION NO: 86
Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?
A. ::1
B. ::
C. 2000::/3
D. 0::/10
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Answer: A
Explanation:
In IPv6 the loopback address is written as,
1
This is a 128bit number, with the first 127 bits being ‘0’ and the 128th bit being ‘1’. It’s just a single
address, so could also be written as ::1/128.
QUESTION NO: 87
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range
10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of
subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/26
B. 10.188.31.0/25
C. 10.188.31.0/28
D. 10.188.31.0/27
E. 10.188.31.0/29
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 25 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s -> /27.
Also the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hostsper-
subnet) so /27 is the best choice.
QUESTION NO: 88
What are three features of the IPv6 protocol?
(Choose three.)
A. optional IPsec
B. autoconfiguration
C. no broadcasts
D. complicated header
E. plug-and-play
F. checksums
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Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
An important feature of IPv6 is that it allows plug and play option to the network devices by
allowing them to configure themselves independently. It is possible to plug a node into an IPv6
network without requiring any human intervention. This feature was critical to allow network
connectivity to an increasing number of mobile devices. This is accomplished by
autoconfiguration.
IPv6 does not implement traditional IP broadcast, i.e. the transmission of a packet to all hosts on
the attached link using a special broadcast address, and therefore does not define broadcast
addresses. In IPv6, the same result can be achieved by sending a packet to the link-local all
nodes multicast group at address ff02::1, which is analogous to IPv4 multicast to address
224.0.0.1.
QUESTION NO: 89
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Answer: C
Explanation:
to enable IPv6 routing on the Cisco router use the following command:
ipv6 unicast-routing
If this command is not recognized, your version of IOS does not support IPv6.
QUESTION NO: 90
What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?
A. global unicast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unspecified address
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Answer: B
Explanation:
IPv6 Anycast addresses are used for one-to-nearest communication, meaning an Anycast address
is used by a device to send data to one specific recipient (interface) that is the closest out of a
group of recipients (interfaces).
QUESTION NO: 91
What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
A. NIC
B. BIA
C. OUI
D. VAI
Answer: C
Explanation:
An Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) is a 24-bit number that uniquely identifies a vendor,
manufacturer, or other organization globally or worldwide.
They are used as the first 24 nits of the MAC address to uniquely identify a particular piece of
equipment.
QUESTION NO: 92
Refer to the exhibit.
Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of
wasted addresses?
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A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.248.0
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
310 hosts < 512 = 29 -> We need a subnet mask of 9 bits 0 -> 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111
1110.0000 0000 -> 255.255.254.0
QUESTION NO: 93
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Answer: B
Explanation:
The 10.0.0.0/22 subnet mask will include the 10.0.0.0, 10.0.1.0, 10.0.2.0, and 10.0.3.0 networks,
and only those four networks.
QUESTION NO: 94
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
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A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. podcast
E. allcast
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are classified by the primary addressing and routing methodologies common in
networkinG. unicast addressing, anycast addressing, and multicast addressing.
QUESTION NO: 95
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Leading zeros in IPv6 are optional do that 05C7 equals 5C7 and 0000 equals 0 -> D is not correct.
QUESTION NO: 96
Refer to the exhibit.
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A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this
network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?
A. 192.168.1.56/26
B. 192.168.1.56/27
C. 192.168.1.64/26
D. 192.168.1.64/27
Answer: C
Explanation:
A subnet with 60 host is 2*2*2*2*2*2 = 64 -2 == 62
6 bits needed for hosts part. Therefore subnet bits are 2 bits (8-6) in fourth octet.
8bits+ 8bits+ 8bits + 2bits = /26
/26 bits subnet is 24bits + 11000000 = 24bits + 192
256 – 192 = 64
0 -63
64 – 127
QUESTION NO: 97
Refer to the exhibit.
All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network
addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)
A. Network A – 172.16.3.48/26
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B. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A – 172.16.3.192/26
D. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A – 172.16.3.40/30
F. Link A – 172.16.3.112/30
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Only a /30 is needed for the point to point link and sine the use of the ip subnet-zero was used,
172.16.3.0/30 is valid. Also, a /25 is required for 120 hosts and again 172.16.3.128/25 is the best,
valid option.
QUESTION NO: 98
The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing
protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of
usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C
address block?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 30
D. 32
E. 14
F. 16
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since there is one class C network that means 256 total IP addresses. Since we need 7 LAN
blocks and we can not use the first one (subnet 0) we take 256/8=32 hosts. However, since we
need to reserve the network and broadcast addresses for each of these subnets, only 30 total IP
addresses are usable.
QUESTION NO: 99
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
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B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Private RFC 1918 IP addresses are meant to be used by organizations locally within their own
network only, and can not be used globally for Internet use.
QUESTION NO: 100
Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme?
(Choose two.)
A. reduces routing table entries
B. auto-negotiation of media rates
C. efficient utilization of MAC addresses
D. dedicated communications between devices
E. ease of management and troubleshooting
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Here are some of the benefits of hierarchical addressing:
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=174107
QUESTION NO: 101
What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address
B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?
A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are two ways that an IPv6 address can be additionally compressed: compressing leading
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zeros and substituting a group of consecutive zeros with a single double colon (::). Both of these
can be used in any number of combinations to notate the same address. It is important to note that
the double colon (::) can only be used once within a single IPv6 address notation. So, the extra 0’s
can only be compressed once.
QUESTION NO: 102
Refer to the diagram.
All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme
that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)
A. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.
B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.
C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
D. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128: This is subnet mask will support up to 126 hosts,
which is needed.
The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1: The usable host range in this
subnet is 172.16.1.1-172.16.1.126
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The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses: The router will need 2
subinterfaces for the single physical interface, one with an IP address that belongs in each VLAN.
QUESTION NO: 103
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the
interface.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Below is the list of common kinds of IPv6 addresses:
QUESTION NO: 104
The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are
two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
A. no broadcast
B. change of source address in the IPv6 header
C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
D. Telnet access does not require a password
E. autoconfiguration
F. NAT
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Answer: A,E
Explanation:
IPv6 does not use broadcasts, and autoconfiguration is a feature of IPV6 that allows for hosts to
automatically obtain an IPv6 address.
QUESTION NO: 105
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network
192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is
given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties
box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
Answer: C
Explanation:
For the 192.168.20.24/29 network, the usable hosts are 192.168.24.25 (router) – 192.168.24.30
(used for the sales server).
QUESTION NO: 106
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to
eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?
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A. 0.0.0.240
B. 255.255.255.252
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.240
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a class C network, a mask of 255.255.255.224 will allow for up to 8 networks with 32 IP
addresses each (30 usable).
QUESTION NO: 107
How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group
representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6
address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.
QUESTION NO: 108
What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an
IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)
A. enable dual-stack routing
B. configure IPv6 directly
C. configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
D. use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
F. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
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Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Several methods are used terms of migration including tunneling, translators, and dual stack.
Tunnels are used to carry one protocol inside another, while translators simply translate IPv6
packets into IPv4 packets. Dual stack uses a combination of both native IPv4 and IPv6. With dual
stack, devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 together and if IPv6 communication is possible that is
the preferred protocol. Hosts can simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content.
QUESTION NO: 109
Refer to the exhibit.
In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?
A. 172.16.0.0 /16
B. 172.16.0.0 /20
C. 172.16.0.0 /24
D. 172.32.0.0 /16
E. 172.32.0.0 /17
F. 172.64.0.0 /16
Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation
Router A receives 3 subnets: 172.16.64.0/18, 172.16.32.0/24 and 172.16.128.0/18.
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All these 3 subnets have the same form of 172.16.x.x so our summarized subnet must be also in
that form -> Only A, B or .
The smallest subnet mask of these 3 subnets is /18 so our summarized subnet must also have its
subnet mask equal or smaller than /18.
-> Only answer A has these 2 conditions -> .
QUESTION NO: 110
How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?
A. by appending 0xFF to the MAC address
B. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE
C. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
D. by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC
address
E. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes
Answer: D
Explanation:
The modified EUI-64 format interface identifier is derived from the 48-bit link-layer (MAC) address
by inserting the hexadecimal number FFFE between the upper three bytes (OUI field) and the
lower three bytes (serial number) of the link layer address.
QUESTION NO: 111
Refer to the exhibit.
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What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?
A. 172.1.0.0/22
B. 172.1.0.0/21
C. 172.1.4.0/22
D. 172.1.4.0/24
172.1.5.0/24
172.1.6.0/24
172.1.7.0/24
E. 172.1.4.0/25
172.1.4.128/25
172.1.5.0/24
172.1.6.0/24
172.1.7.0/24
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 172.1.4.0/22 subnet encompasses all routes from the IP range 172.1.4.0 – 172.1.7.255.
QUESTION NO: 112
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
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Answer: D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group
representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6
address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. The leading 0’s in a group can be
collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.
QUESTION NO: 113
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Answer: B,E,F
Explanation:
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6
addresses are global addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface
unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that
is apart of that anycast group.
The sender creates a packet and forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination
address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest router or interface is found by using the
metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN setting the nearest
interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a
LAN setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.
QUESTION NO: 114
A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network.
The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per
subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support
an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
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A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.192
F. 255.255.248.0
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Subnetting is used to break the network into smaller more efficient subnets to prevent excessive
rates of Ethernet packet collision in a large network. Such subnets can be arranged hierarchically,
with the organization’s network address space (see also Autonomous System) partitioned into a
tree-like structure. Routers are used to manage traffic and constitute borders between subnets.
A routing prefix is the sequence of leading bits of an IP address that precede the portion of the
address used as host identifier. In IPv4 networks, the routing prefix is often expressed as a
“subnet mask”, which is a bit mask covering the number of bits used in the prefix. An IPv4 subnet
mask is frequently expressed in quad-dotted decimal representation, e.g., 255.255.255.0 is the
subnet mask for the 192.168.1.0 network with a 24-bit routing prefix (192.168.1.0/24).
QUESTION NO: 115
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for
the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)
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A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 116
Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?
A. FF02::1
B. FF02::2
C. FF02::3
D. FF02::4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Well-known IPv6 multicast addresses:
Address
Description
ff02::1
All nodes on the local network segment
ff02::2
All routers on the local network segment
QUESTION NO: 117
Refer to the exhibit.
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Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?
A. 172.16.0.0./21
B. 172.16.0.0./20
C. 172.16.0.0./16
D. 172.16.0.0/18
Answer: B
Explanation:
The 172.16.0.0./20 network is the best option as it includes all networks from 172.16.0.0 –
172.16.16.0 and does it more efficiently than the /16 and /18 subnets. The /21 subnet will not
include all the other subnets in this one single summarized address.
QUESTION NO: 118
Which IPv6 address is valid?
A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
Answer: D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group
representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6
address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. The leading 0’s in a group can be
collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.
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QUESTION NO: 119
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?
A. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
C. ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64
D. ipv6 autoconfig
Answer: B
Explanation:
To assign an IPv6 address to an interface, use the “ipv6 address” command and specify the IP
address you wish to use.
QUESTION NO: 120
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), the address block fe80::/10 has been reserved for linklocal
unicast addressing. The actual link local addresses are assigned with the prefix fe80::/64.
They may be assigned by automatic (stateless) or stateful (e.g. manual) mechanisms.
QUESTION NO: 121
The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing
scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the
fewest subnet and host addresses?
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A. 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
B. 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
C. 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
D. 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
E. 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
We need 113 point-to-point links which equal to 113 sub-networks < 128 so we need to borrow 7
bits (because 2^7 = 128).
The network used for point-to-point connection should be /30.
So our initial network should be 30 – 7 = 23.
So 10.10.0.0/23 is the correct answer.
You can understand it more clearly when writing it in binary form:
/23 = 1111 1111.1111 1110.0000 0000
/30 = 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1100 (borrow 7 bits)
Topic 4, IP Routing Technologies
QUESTION NO: 122 DRAG DROP
Answer:
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Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 123 DRAG DROP
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Answer:
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 124 DRAG DROP
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Answer:
Explanation:
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Explanation
If we have many entries matching for next hop ip address then the router will choose the one with
most specific path to send the packet. This is called the “longest match” rule, the route with the
most bits in the mask set to “1 will be chosen to route packet.
QUESTION NO: 125
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay
C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
Answer: A
Explanation: The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is
Cost = 108 / Bandwidth
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QUESTION NO: 126
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to speed up convergence
D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as
area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are a number of
secondary tier areas. The hierarchical approach is used to achieve the following:
•
Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures
•
Deterministic traffic recovery
•
Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.
QUESTION NO: 127
Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?
A. Router# service password-encryption
B. Router(config)# password-encryption
C. Router(config)# service password-encryption
D. Router# password-encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
Command
The “service password-encryption” command allows you to encrypt all passwords on your router
so they can not be easily guessed from your running-config. This command uses a very weak
encryption because the router has to be very quickly decode the passwords for its operation.
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It is meant to prevent someone from looking over your shoulder and seeing the password, that is
all. This is configured in global configuration mode.
QUESTION NO: 128
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Answer: B,G
Explanation:
Since static routing is a manual process, it can be argued that it is more secure (and more prone
to human errors) since the network administrator will need to make changes to the routing table
directly. Also, in stub networks where there is only a single uplink connection, the load is reduced
as stub routers just need a single static default route, instead of many routes that all have the
same next hop IP address.
QUESTION NO: 129
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing
the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be
encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
access-class 1
B. enable password secret
line vty 0
login
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password cisco
C. service password-encryption
line vty 1
login
password cisco
D. service password-encryption
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only one VTY connection is allowed which is exactly what’s requested.
Incorrect answer: command.
line vty0 4
would enable all 5 vty connections.
QUESTION NO: 130
Refer to the exhibit.
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will
be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct
path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the
Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
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B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Answer: E
Explanation:
We use default routing to send packets with a remote destination network not in the routing table
to the next-hop router. You should generally only use default routing on stub networks—those with
only one exit path out of the network.
According to exhibit, all traffic towards Internet that originates from workstations should forward to
Router R1.
Syntax for default route is:
ip route <Remote_Network> <Netmask> <Next_Hop_Address>.
QUESTION NO: 131
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic
to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?
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A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.
B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to
Manchester.
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London
router.
D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.
Answer: E
Explanation:
This static route will allow for communication to the Manchester workstations and it is better to use
this more specific route than a default route as traffic destined to the Internet will then not go out
the London Internet connection.
QUESTION NO: 132
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic.
What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the
two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two.)
A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
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B. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter.
C. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to
CentralRouter.
D. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.
E. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter.
F. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
The use of static routes will provide the necessary information for connectivity while producing no
routing traffic overhead.
QUESTION NO: 133
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the
configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Enable vty, console, AUX passwords are configured on the Cisco device. Use the show run
command to show most passwords in clear text. If the service password-encryption is used, all the
passwords are encrypted. As a result, the security of device access is improved.
QUESTION NO: 134
Refer to the exhibit.
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What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use
Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via
the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol which provides a secure remote access connection to network
devices. Communication between the client and server is encrypted in both SSH version 1 and
SSH version 2. If you want to prevent non-SSH connections, add the “transport input ssh”
command under the lines to limit the router to SSH connections only. Straight (non-SSH) Telnets
are refused.
Reference: www.cisco.com/warp/public/707/ssh.shtml
QUESTION NO: 135
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the reason that the interface status is “administratively down, line protocol down”?
A. There is no encapsulation type configured.
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B. There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
C. The interface is not receiving any keepalives.
D. The interface has been configured with the shutdown command.
E. The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
F. The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Interfaces can be enabled or disabled with shutdown/no shutdown command. If you interface is
down, it will display administratively down status. You can bring up an interface having
administratively down interface using no shutdown command.
QUESTION NO: 136
Refer to the exhibit.
When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?
A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
To form an adjacency (become neighbor), router A & B must have the same Hello interval, Dead
interval and AREA numbers
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QUESTION NO: 137
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One
route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a
metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router
install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the
routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of
popular routing protocols are listed below:
QUESTION NO: 138
Refer to the exhibit.
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The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the
192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?
A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
Host on the LAN attached to router R1 belongs to 192.168.10.64/26 subnet. From the output of
the routing table of R3 we learn this network can be reach via 192.168.10.9, which is an IP
address in 192.168.10.8/30 network (the network between R1 & R3) -> packets destined for
192.168.10.64 will be routed from R3 -> R1 -> LAN on R1.
QUESTION NO: 139
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm
the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit
interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command
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will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
Below is an example of the show ip eigrp neighbors command. The retransmit interval (Smooth
Round Trip Timer – SRTT) and the queue counts (Q count, which shows the number of queued
EIGRP packets) for the adjacent routers are listed:
QUESTION NO: 140
Refer to the graphic.
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for
this problem? (Choose two.)
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A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from
being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
This question is to examine the conditions for OSPF to create neighborhood.
So as to make the two routers become neighbors, each router must be matched with the following
items:
1. The area ID and its types;
2. Hello and failure time interval timer;
3. OSPF Password (Optional);
QUESTION NO: 141
What is a global command?
A. a command that is set once and affects the entire router
B. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment
status
E. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
When you enter global configuration mode and enter a command, it is applied to the running
configuration file that is currently running in ram. The configuration of a global command affects
the entire router. An example of a global command is one used for the hostname of the router.
QUESTION NO: 142
Refer to the exhibit.
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When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question is to examine the understanding of the interaction between EIGRP routers.
The following information must be matched so as to create neighborhood.
EIGRP routers to establish, must match the following information:
1. AS Number;
2. K value.
QUESTION NO: 143
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and
load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register.
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Default (normal) Boot SequencePower on Router – Router does POST – Bootstrap starts IOS
load – Check configuration registerto see what mode the router should boot up in (usually 0x2102
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to read startup-config in NVRAM / or 0x2142 to start in “setup-mode”) – check the startup-config
file in NVRAM for boot-system commands – load IOS from Flash.
QUESTION NO: 144
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?
A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
Answer: E
Explanation: Explanation
The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) defines the maximum Layer 3 packet (in bytes) that the
layer can pass onwards.
QUESTION NO: 145
On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are
unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication
between the VLANs?
A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
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C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches
Answer: A
Explanation:
Different VLANs can’t communicate with each other , they can communicate with the help of
Layer3 router. Hence , it is needed to connect a router to a switch , then make the sub-interface on
the router to connect to the switch, establishing Trunking links to achieve communications of
devices which belong to different VLANs.
When using VLANs in networks that have multiple interconnected switches, you need to use
VLAN trunking between the switches. With VLAN trunking, the switches tag each frame sent
between switches so that the receiving switch knows to what VLAN the frame belongs. End user
devices connect to switch ports that provide simple connectivity to a single VLAN each. The
attached devices are unaware of any VLAN structure.
By default, only hosts that are members of the same VLAN can communicate. To change this and
allow inter-VLAN communication, you need a router or a layer 3 switch.
Here is the example of configuring the router for inter-vlan communication
RouterA(config)#int f0/0.1
RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation ?
dot1Q IEEE 802.1Q Virtual LAN
RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1Q or isl VLAN ID
RouterA(config-subif)# ip address x.x.x.x y.y.y.y
QUESTION NO: 146
Which command displays CPU utilization?
A. show protocols
B. show process
C. show system
D. show version
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
The “show process” (in fact, the full command is “show processes”) command gives us lots of
information about each process but in fact it is not easy to read. Below shows the output of this
command (some next pages are omitted)
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A more friendly way to check the CPU utilization is the command “show processes cpu history”, in
which the total CPU usage on the router over a period of time: one minute, one hour, and 72 hours
are clearly shown:
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+ The Y-axis of the graph is the CPU utilization.+ The X-axis of the graph is the increment within
the period displayed in the graph
For example, from the last graph (last 72 hours) we learn that the highest CPU utilization within 72
hours is 37% about six hours ago.
QUESTION NO: 147
What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.
B. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
C. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.
D. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.
E. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Distance means how far and Vector means in which direction. Distance Vector routing protocols
pass periodic copies of routing table to neighbor routers and accumulate distance vectors. In
distance vector routing protocols, routers discover the best path to destination from each neighbor.
The routing updates proceed step by step from router to router.
QUESTION NO: 148
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Answer: D
Explanation:
The “show ip ospf database” command displays the link states. Here is an example:
Here is the lsa database on R2.
R2#show ip ospf database
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OSPF Router with ID (2.2.2.2) (Process ID 1)
Router Link States (Area 0)
Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum Link count2.2.2.2 2.2.2.2 793 0x80000003 0x004F85
210.4.4.4 10.4.4.4 776 0x80000004 0x005643 1111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 755
0x80000005 0x0059CA 2133.133.133.133 133.133.133.133 775 0x80000005 0x00B5B1 2
Net Link States (Area 0)
Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum10.1.1.1 111.111.111.111 794 0x80000001
0x001E8B10.2.2.3 133.133.133.133 812 0x80000001 0x004BA910.4.4.1 111.111.111.111 755
0x80000001 0x007F1610.4.4.3 133.133.133.133 775 0x80000001 0x00C31F
QUESTION NO: 149
Refer to the exhibit.
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the
maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3 MB
B. 4 MB
C. 5 MB
D. 7 MB
E. 8 MB
Answer: B
Explanation:
In this example, there are a total of 8 MB, but 3.8 are being used already, so another file as large
as 4MB can be loaded in addition to the original file.
QUESTION NO: 150
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Refer to the exhibit.
The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between
the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three
statements are true of these devices? (Choose three.)
A. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.
B. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2.
C. The London router is a Cisco 2610.
D. The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610.
E. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.
F. The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
From the output, we learn that the IP address of the neighbor router is 10.1.1.2 and the question
stated that the subnet mask of the network between two router is 255.255.255.252. Therefore
there are only 2 available hosts in this network (22 – 2 = 2). So we can deduce the ip address (of
the serial interface) of Manchester router is 10.1.1.1 ->
The platform of the neighbor router is cisco 2610, as shown in the output ->
Maybe the most difficult choice of this question is the answer E or F. Please notice that “Interface”
refers to the local port on the local router, in this case it is the port of Manchester router, and “Port
ID (outgoing port)” refers to the port on the neighbor router.
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QUESTION NO: 151
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default
gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Both the “ip default-network” and “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 (next hop)” commands can be used to
set the default gateway in a Cisco router.
QUESTION NO: 152
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a
dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Answer: B
Explanation:
By default the administrative distance of a static route is 1, meaning it will be preferred over all
dynamic routing protocols. If you want to have the dynamic routing protocol used and have the
static route be used only as a backup, you need to increase the AD of the static route so that it is
higher than the dynamic routing protocol.
QUESTION NO: 153
Refer to the exhibit.
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A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are
participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF
according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation: Explanation
The “network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:
+ Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000)
+ Network address: 192.168.12.64
+ Broadcast address: 192.168.12.127
Therefore all interface in the range of this network will join OSPF.
QUESTION NO: 154
Refer to the exhibit.
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The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce
the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central
router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional
subnets?
A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
Answer: D
Explanation:
The 10.4.0.0/22 route includes 10.4.0.0/24, 10.4.1.0/24, 10.4.2.0/24 and 10.4.3.0/24 only.
QUESTION NO: 155
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Refer to the graphic.
A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands
will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The simple syntax of static route:
ip route destination-network-address subnet-mask {next-hop-IP-address | exit-interface}
+ destination-network-address: destination network address of the remote network
+ subnet mask: subnet mask of the destination network
+ next-hop-IP-address: the IP address of the receiving interface on the next-hop router
+ exit-interface: the local interface of this router where the packets will go out
In the statement “ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0:
+ 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0: the destination network
+fa0/0: the exit-interface
QUESTION NO: 156
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and
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which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Answer: B,D
Explanation: Explanation
When upgrading new version of the IOS we need to copy the IOS to the Flash so first we have to
check if the Flash has enough memory or not. Also running the new IOS may require more RAM
than the older one so we should check the available RAM too. We can check both with the “show
version” command.
QUESTION NO: 157
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
The “show version” command can be used to show the last method to powercycle (reset) a router
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QUESTION NO: 158
Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Answer: B
Explanation:
In computing, traceroute is a computer network diagnostic tool for displaying the route (path) and
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measuring transit delays of packets across an Internet Protocol (IP) network. The history of the
route is recorded as the round-trip times of the packets received from each successive host
(remote node) in the route (path); the sum of the mean times in each hop indicates the total time
spent to establish the connection. Traceroute proceeds unless all (three) sent packets are lost
more than twice, then the connection is lost and the route cannot be evaluated. Ping, on the other
hand, only computes the final round-trip times from the destination point.
QUESTION NO: 159
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its
topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Neighbor discovery is the first step in getting a link state environment up and running. In keeping
with the friendly neighbor terminology, a Hello protocol is used for this step. The protocol will
define a Hello packet format and a procedure for exchanging the packets and processing the
information the packets contain.
After the adjacencies are established, the routers may begin sending out LSAs. As the term
flooding implies, the advertisements are sent to every neighbor. In turn, each received LSA is
copied and forwarded to every neighbor except the one that sent the LSA.
QUESTION NO: 160
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
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E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford
vector based algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has
introduced new concepts such as authentication of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet
Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth.
OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing
information is flooded to all routers in the network. Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the
explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is
limited to changes within an area.
QUESTION NO: 161
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config
command on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a
remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as shown. What
is the cause of the problem?
A. The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
B. The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
C. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
D. The configuration register is set to 0x2102.
E. The router is configured with the boot system startup command.
Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation
The “System Configuration Dialog” appears only when no startup configuration file is found. The
network administrator has made a mistake because the command “copy startup-config runningconfig”
will copy the startup config (which is empty) over the running config (which is configured by
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the administrator). So everything configured was deleted.
Note: We can tell the router to ignore the start-up configuration on the next reload by setting the
register to 0×2142. This will make the “System Configuration Dialog” appear at the next reload.
QUESTION NO: 162
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Answer: C
Explanation:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there
are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols.
Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is
prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance
value.
Default Distance Value Table
This table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
0
Static route
1
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route
5
External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
20
Internal EIGRP
90
IGRP
100
OSPF
110
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
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115
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
120
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
140
On Demand Routing (ODR)
160
External EIGRP
170
Internal BGP
200
Unknown*
255
QUESTION NO: 163
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation: Explanation
Each of routers running link-state routing protocol learns paths to all the destinations in its “area”
so we can say although it is a bit unclear.
Link-state routing protocols generate routing updates only (not the whole routing table) when a
change occurs in the network topology so
Link-state routing protocol like OSPF uses Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest path -> .
Unlike Distance vector routing protocol (which utilizes frequent periodic updates), link-state routing
protocol utilizes event-triggered updates (only sends update when a change occurs) ->
QUESTION NO: 164
Refer to the exhibit.
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Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26
LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
From the routing table we learn that network 192.168.10.0/30 is learned via 2 equal-cost paths
(192.168.10.9 &192.168.10.5) -> traffic to this network will be load-balancing.
QUESTION NO: 165
Refer to the exhibit.
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C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have
been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been
configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since all the same router (C-router) is the default gateway for all three VLANs, all traffic destined
to a different VLA will be sent to the C-router. The C-router will have knowledge of all three
networks since they will appear as directly connected in the routing table. Since the C-router
already knows how to get to all three networks, no routing protocols need to be configured.
QUESTION NO: 166
Refer to the exhibit.
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Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?
A. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid.
B. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.
D. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in
flash.
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
During the copy process, the router asked “Erasing flash before copying? [confirm]” and the
administrator confirmed (by pressing Enter) so the flash was deleted.
Note: In this case, the flash has enough space to copy a new IOS without deleting the current one.
The current IOS is deleted just because the administrator wants to do so. If the flash does not
have enough space you will see an error message like this:
%Error copying tftp://192.168.2.167/ c1600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin (Not enough space on device)
QUESTION NO: 167
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view
directly connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
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C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Answer: C
Explanation:
CDP is enabled on Cisco routers by default. If you prefer not to use the CDP capability, disable it
with the no cdp run command. In order to reenable CDP, use the cdp run command in global
configuration mode. The “cdp enable” command is an interface command, not global.
QUESTION NO: 168
Refer to the exhibit.
According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.1.2.2
C. 10.1.3.3
D. 10.1.4.4
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
The destination IP address 10.1.5.65 belongs to 10.1.5.64/28, 10.1.5.64/29 & 10.1.5.64/27
subnets but the “longest prefix match” algorithm will choose the most specific subnet mask -> the
prefix “/29 will be chosen to route the packet. Therefore the next-hop should be 10.1.3.3 -> .
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QUESTION NO: 169
Refer to the exhibit.
Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?
A. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240
B. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252
C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240
D. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252
E. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
F. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252
Answer: C
Explanation:
The binary version of 20 is 10100.
The binary version of 16 is 10000.
The binary version of 24 is 11000.
The binary version of 28 is 11100.
The subnet mask is /28. The mask is 255.255.255.240.
Note:
From the output above, EIGRP learned 4 routes and we need to find out the summary of them:
+ 192.168.25.16
+ 192.168.25.20
+ 192.168.25.24
+ 192.168.25.28
-> The increment should bE. 28 – 16 = 12 but 12 is not an exponentiation of 2 so we must choose
16 (24). Therefore the subnet mask is /28 (=1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.11110000) =
255.255.255.240
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So the best answer should be 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240
QUESTION NO: 170
Refer to the exhibit.
Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the
interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The output shown shows normal operational status of the router’s interfaces. Serial0/0 is down
because it has been disabled using the “shutdown” command.
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QUESTION NO: 171
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system
command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Answer: C,E
Explanation: Explanation
The following locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image:
1. + Flash (the default location)
2. + TFTP server
3. + ROM (used if no other source is found)
4. (Please read the explanation of Question 4 for more information)
QUESTION NO: 172
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will
OSPF use for this router?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3
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Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
The highest IP address of all loopback interfaces will be chosen -> Loopback 0 will be chosen as
the router ID.
QUESTION NO: 173
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication
between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100
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Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The router will need to use subinterfaces, where each subinterface is assigned a VLAN and IP
address for each VLAN. On the switch, the connection to the router need to be configured as a
trunk using the switchport mode trunk command and it will need a default gateway for VLAN 1.
QUESTION NO: 174
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure
OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Answer: C,D
Explanation: Multiple OSPF processes can be configured on a router using multiple process ID’s.
The valid process ID’s are shown below:
Edge-B(config)#router ospf ?
<1-65535> Process ID
QUESTION NO: 175
Refer to the exhibit.
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For what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location that is shown?
(Choose two.)
A. Router1 has specific boot system commands that instruct it to load IOS from a TFTP server.
B. Router1 is acting as a TFTP server for other routers.
C. Router1 cannot locate a valid IOS image in flash memory.
D. Router1 defaulted to ROMMON mode and loaded the IOS image from a TFTP server.
E. Cisco routers will first attempt to load an image from TFTP for management purposes.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The loading sequence of CISCO IOS is as follows:
Booting up the router and locating the Cisco IOS
1. POST (power on self test)
2. Bootstrap code executed
3. Check Configuration Register value (NVRAM) which can be modified using the config-register
command
0 = ROM Monitor mode
1 = ROM IOS
2 – 15 = startup-config in NVRAM
4. Startup-config filE. Check for boot system commands (NVRAM)
If boot system commands in startup-config
a. Run boot system commands in order they appear in startup-config to locate the IOS
b. [If boot system commands fail, use default fallback sequence to locate the IOS (Flash, TFTP,
ROM)?]
If no boot system commands in startup-config use the default fallback sequence in locating the
IOS:
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a. Flash (sequential)
b. TFTP server (netboot)
c. ROM (partial IOS) or keep retrying TFTP depending upon router model
5. If IOS is loaded, but there is no startup-config file, the router will use the default fallback
sequence for locating the IOS and then it will enter setup mode or the setup dialogue.
QUESTION NO: 176
Refer to the exhibit.
What can be determined about the router from the console output?
A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
B. No configuration file was found in flash.
C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.
Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation
When no startup configuration file is found in NVRAM, the System Configuration Dialog will appear
to ask if we want to enter the initial configuration dialog or not.
QUESTION NO: 177
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking?
(Choose three.)
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A. one physical interface for each subinterface
B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C. a management domain for each subinterface
D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E. one subinterface per VLAN
F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
This scenario is commonly called a router on a stick. A short, well written article on this operation
can be found here:
http://www.thebryantadvantage.com/RouterOnAStickCCNACertificationExamTutorial.htm
QUESTION NO: 178
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network
192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Answer: B,E
Explanation: Explanation
In the router ospf
command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number -> but
To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the “network” statement, not a subnet mask. We also
need to assgin an area to this process -> .
QUESTION NO: 179
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the
router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
A. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
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B. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24
C. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
D. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
E. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
F. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop
Answer: A
Explanation:
When there is more than one way to reach a destination, it will choose the best one based on a
couple of things. First, it will choose the route that has the longest match; meaning the most
specific route. So, in this case the /24 routes will be chosen over the /16 routes. Next, from all the
/24 routes it will choose the one with the lowest administrative distance. Directly connected routes
have an AD of 1 so this will be the route chosen.
QUESTION NO: 180
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table
of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. unlimited
Answer: B
Explanation:
maximum-paths (OSPF)
To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can
support, use the maximum-paths command.
Syntax Description
maximum
Maximum number of parallel routes that OSPF can install in a routing table. The range is from 1 to
16 routes.
Command Default
8 paths
QUESTION NO: 181
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Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
A. show cdp neigbors
B. show session
C. show users
D. show vty logins
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
The “show users” shows telnet/ssh connections to your router while “show sessions” shows
telnet/ssh connections from your router (to other devices). The question asks about “your active
Telnet connections”, meaning connections from your router so the answer should be A.
QUESTION NO: 182
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Answer: C
Explanation:
EIGRP uses the Neighbor Table to list adjacent routers. The Topology Table list all the learned
routers to destination whilst the Routing Table contains the best route to a destination, which is
known as the Successor. The Feasible Successor is a backup route to a destination which is kept
in the Topology Table.
QUESTION NO: 183
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts
attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic
and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following
commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?
A. Switch1(config)# line con0
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Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)#login
B. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
D. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# duplex full
Switch1(config-if)# speed 100
E. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since we know hosts can reach the router through the switch, we know that connectivity, duplex.
Speed, etc. are good. However, for the switch itself to reach networks outside the local one, the ip
default-gateway command must be used.
QUESTION NO: 184
Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has
been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
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D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Notice the line, which says “Interface VLAN1, changed state to administratively down”. This shows
that VLAN1 is shut down. Hence remote management of this switch is not possible unless VLAN1
is brought back up. Since VLAN1 is the only interface shown in the output, you have to assume
that no other VLAN interface has been configured with an IP Address.
QUESTION NO: 185
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but
they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.
Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of
connectivity.
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Answer: D
Explanation:
Because Interface Serial 0 of Atlanta Router has 192.168.10.1 And Interface Serial 1 of Router
Brevard has 192.168.11.2. These are from different network.
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QUESTION NO: 186
Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The
network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route
command, and was able to ping the server.
Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is
the cause of the failure?
A. The network has not fully converged.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A static route is configured incorrectly.
D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated .
Answer: C
Explanation: The default route or the static route was configured with incorrect next-hop ip
address 172.19.22.2 The correct ip address will be 172.18.22.2 to reach server located on
172.31.5.0 network. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.18.22.2
QUESTION NO: 187
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The
networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers.
Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing
this problem?
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Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
A. The process id is configured improperly.
B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
D. The network number is configured improperly.
E. The AS is configured improperly.
F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When configuring OSPF, the mask used for the network statement is a wildcard mask similar to an
access list. In this specific example, the correct syntax would have been “network 10.0.0.0
0.0.0.255 area 0.”
Topic 5, IP Services
QUESTION NO: 188
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
A. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
B. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
C. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
D. If an address conflict is de0tected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator
must resolve the conflict.
E. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time
configurable by the administrator.
F. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused
until the server is rebooted.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment,
DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is
removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the
conflict.
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(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_1/iproute/configuration/guide/1cddhcp.html)
QUESTION NO: 189
Refer to the exhibit.
What statement is true of the configuration for this network?
A. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of
the number of inside addresses that are supported.
B. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not
support the NAT configuration as shown.
C. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.
D. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and
172.16.2.0/24.
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
The “list 1 refers to the access-list number 1.
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QUESTION NO: 190
Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP
server?
A. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the
length of the agreement.
B. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts uses the same address at all times.
C. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an
address must be made.
D. Addresses are leased to hosts, which periodically contact the DHCP server to renew the lease.
Answer: D
Explanation: The DHCP lifecycle consists of the following:
Release: The client may decide at any time that it no longer wishes to use the IP address it was
assigned, and may terminate the lease, releasing the IP address.
QUESTION NO: 191
What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)
A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
B. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
C. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
D. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
F. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
By not revealing the internal Ip addresses, NAT adds some security to the inside network -> F is
correct.
NAT has to modify the source IP addresses in the packets -> E is not correct.
Connection from the outside of the network through a “NAT” network is more difficult than a more
network because IP addresses of inside hosts are hidden -> C is not correct.
In order for IPsec to work with NAT we need to allow additional protocols, including Internet Key
Exchange (IKE), Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH) -> more
complex -> A is not correct.
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By allocating specific public IP addresses to inside hosts, NAT eliminates the need to re-address
the inside hosts -> B is correct.
NAT does conserve addresses but not through host MAC-level multiplexing. It conserves
addresses by allowing many private IP addresses to use the same public IP address to go to the
Internet -> C is not correct.
QUESTION NO: 192
On which options are standard access lists based?
A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and subnet mask
D. source address and wildcard mask
Answer: D
Explanation:
Standard ACL’s only examine the source IP address/mask to determine if a match is made.
Extended ACL’s examine the source and destination address, as well as port information.
QUESTION NO: 193
A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username
and password so that the user can access the entire network over the Internet. Which ACL can be
used?
A. standard
B. extended
C. dynamic
D. reflexive
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
We can use a dynamic access list to authenticate a remote user with a specific username and
password. The authentication process is done by the router or a central access server such as a
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TACACS+ or RADIUS server. The configuration of dynamic ACL can be read here:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk583/tk822/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094524.shtml
QUESTION NO: 194
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?
A. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
B. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for
an address must be made, and another address is then assigned.
C. Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically
contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease.
D. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the
length of the agreement.
Answer: C
Explanation:
DHCP works in a client/server mode and operates like any other client/server relationship. When a
PC connects to a DHCP server, the server assigns or leases an IP address to that PC. The PC
connects to the network with that leased IP address until the lease expires. The host must contact
the DHCP server periodically to extend the lease. This lease mechanism ensures that hosts that
move or power off do not hold onto addresses that they do not need. The DHCP server returns
these addresses to the address pool and reallocates them as necessary.
QUESTION NO: 195
Refer to the exhibit.
Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
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A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment,
DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is
removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the
conflict.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_1/iproute/configuration/guide/1cddhcp.html)
QUESTION NO: 196
Refer to the exhibit.
The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the
problem?
A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot
be configured to authenticate to each other.
Answer: B
Explanation:
With CHAP authentication, the configured passwords must be identical on each router. Here, it is
configured as little123 on one side and big123 on the other.
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QUESTION NO: 197
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network protocol used to configure devices
that are connected to a network (known as hosts) so they can communicate on that network using
the Internet Protocol (IP). It involves clients and a server operating in a client-server model. DHCP
servers assigns IP addresses from a pool of addresses and also assigns other parameters such
as DNS and default gateways to hosts.
QUESTION NO: 198
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts?
(Choose two.)
A. network or subnetwork IP address
B. broadcast address on the network
C. IP address leased to the LAN
D. IP address used by the interfaces
E. manually assigned address to the clients
F. designated IP address to the DHCP server
Answer: A,B
Explanation: Explanation
Network or subnetwork IP address (for example 11.0.0.0/8 or 13.1.0.0/16) and broadcast address
(for example 23.2.1.255/24) should never be assignable to hosts. When try to assign these
addresses to hosts, you will receive an error message saying that they can’t be assignable.
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QUESTION NO: 199
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)
A. They allow connections to be initiated from the outside.
B. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
C. They are always present in the NAT table.
D. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from
the outside.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Static NAT is to map a single outside IP address to a single inside IP address. This is typically
done to allow incoming connections from the outside (Internet) to the inside. Since these are
static, they are always present in the NAT table even if they are not actively in use.
Topic 6, Network Device Security
QUESTION NO: 200
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are
true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new
addresses, up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running
configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the
voice VLAN.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Follow these guidelines when configuring port security:
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+ Port security can only be configured on static access ports, trunk ports, or 802.1Q tunnel ports.
+ A secure port cannot be a dynamic access port.
+ A secure port cannot be a destination port for Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN).
+ A secure port cannot belong to a Fast EtherChannel or Gigabit EtherChannel port group.
+ You cannot configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses on a voice VLAN.
+ When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, you
must set the maximum allowed secure addresses on the port to at least two.
+ If any type of port security is enabled on the access VLAN, dynamic port security is
automatically enabled on the voice VLAN.
+ When a voice VLAN is configured on a secure port that is also configured as a sticky secure
port, all addresses seen on the voice VLAN are learned as dynamic secure addresses, and all
addresses seen on the access VLAN (to which the port belongs) are learned as sticky secure
addresses.
+ The switch does not support port security aging of sticky secure MAC addresses.
+ The protect and restrict options cannot be simultaneously enabled on an interface.
(Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_19_ea1/config
uration/guide/swtrafc.html)
QUESTION NO: 201 DRAG DROP
Answer:
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Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 202
Refer to the exhibit.
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A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow
only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the
port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with
successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show
commands.
Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Port security needs to be globally enabled.
B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.
C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.
D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.
E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.
F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
From the output we can see that port security is disabled so this needs to be enabled. Also, the
maximum number of devices is set to 2 so this needs to be just one if we want the single host to
have access and nothing else.
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QUESTION NO: 203
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question is to examine the layer 2 security configuration.
In order to satisfy the requirements of this question, you should perform the following
configurations in the interface mode:
First, configure the interface mode as the access mode
Second, enable the port security and set the maximum number of connections to 1.
QUESTION NO: 204
How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional
security?
A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing
exchanges
E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
By using this command, all the (current and future) passwords are encrypted. This command is
primarily useful for keeping unauthorized individuals from viewing your password in your
configuration file
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QUESTION NO: 205
Refer to the exhibit.
Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to
interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP
of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict
anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works
as intended?
A. ACDB
B. BADC
C. DBAC
D. CDBA
Answer: D
Explanation:
Routers go line by line through an access list until a match is found and then will not look any
further, even if a more specific of better match is found later on in the access list. So, it it best to
begin with the most specific entries first, in this cast the two hosts in line C and D. Then, include
the subnet (B) and then finally the rest of the traffic (A).
QUESTION NO: 206
Refer to the exhibit.
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An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface
command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?
A. no ip access-class 102 in
B. no ip access-class 102 out
C. no ip access-group 102 in
D. no ip access-group 102 out
E. no ip access-list 102 in
Answer: D
Explanation:
The “ip access-group” is used to apply and ACL to an interface. From the output shown, we know
that the ACL is applied to outbound traffic, so “no ip access-group 102 out” will remove the effect
of this ACL.
QUESTION NO: 207
Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon
receipt of a BPDU?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Root Guard
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D. BPDU Guard
E. BPDU Filter
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
We only enable PortFast feature on access ports (ports connected to end stations). But if
someone does not know he can accidentally plug that port to another switch and a loop may occur
when BPDUs are being transmitted and received on these ports.
With BPDU Guard, when a PortFast receives a BPDU, it will be shut down to prevent a loop.
QUESTION NO: 208
When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify
which interfaces are affected by the ACL?
A. show ip access-lists
B. show access-lists
C. show interface
D. show ip interface
E. list ip interface
Answer: D
Explanation:
Incorrect answer:
show ip access-lists does not show interfaces affected by an ACL.
QUESTION NO: 209 CORRECT TEXT
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C
should be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server.
No other hosts from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this
server. Since there are multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other
resources on the Finance Web Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply an access-list with no more than three statements that will allow
ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the
Finance Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
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Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 –
192.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
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Answer: Select the console on Corp1 router
Configuring ACL
Corp1>enable
Corp1#configure terminal
comment: To permit only Host C (192.168.33.3){source addr} to access finance server address
(172.22.242.23) {destination addr} on port number 80 (web)
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 192.168.33.3 host 172.22.242.23 eq 80
comment: To deny any source to access finance server address (172.22.242.23) {destination
addr} on port number 80 (web)
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 deny tcp any host 172.22.242.23 eq 80
comment: To permit ip protocol from any source to access any destination because of the implicit
deny any any statement at the end of ACL.
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit ip any any
Applying the ACL on the Interface
comment: Check show ip interface brief command to identify the interface type and number by
checking the IP address configured.
Corp1(config)#interface fa 0/1
If the ip address configured already is incorrect as well as the subnet mask. this should be
corrected in order ACL to work
type this commands at interface mode :
no ip address 192.x.x.x 255.x.x.x (removes incorrect configured ipaddress and subnet mask)
Configure Correct IP Address and subnet mask :
ip address 172.22.242.30 255.255.255.240 ( range of address specified going to server is given as
172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30 )
Comment: Place the ACL to check for packets going outside the interface towards the finance web
server.
Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 100 out
Corp1(config-if)#end
Important: To save your running config to startup before exit.
Corp1#copy running-config startup-config
Verifying the Configuration:
Step1: show ip interface brief command identifies the interface on which to apply access list.
Step2: Click on each host A, B, C, & D. Host opens a web browser page, Select address box of
the web browser and type the ip address of finance web server (172.22.242.23) to test whether it
permits /deny access to the finance web Server.
Step 3: Only Host C (192.168.33.3) has access to the server. If the other host can also access
then maybe something went wrong in your configuration. Check whether you configured correctly
and in order.
Step 4: If only Host C (192.168.33.3) can access the Finance Web Server you can click on NEXT
button to successfully submit the ACL SIM.
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QUESTION NO: 210
Refer to exhibit.
A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the
cause of this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The login keyword has been set, but not password. This will result in the “password required, but
none set” message to users trying to telnet to this router.
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QUESTION NO: 211
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
We can have only 1 access list per protocol, per direction and per interface. It means:
+ We can not have 2 inbound access lists on an interface
+ We can have 1 inbound and 1 outbound access list on an interface
QUESTION NO: 212
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
A. access-list 110 permit ip any any
B. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
C. access list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
D. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
The standard access lists are ranged from 1 to 99 and from 1300 to 1999 so only access list 50 is
a standard access list.
QUESTION NO: 213
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on
networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL
statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
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A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
“access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255” would allow only the 192.168.146.0 and
192.168.147.0 networks, and “access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255” would allow only
the 192.168.148.0 and 192.168.149.0 networks.
QUESTION NO: 214
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group
command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class
command.
Answer: D,E
Explanation: Explanation
It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the
virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces ->
We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is “virtual” ->
To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the “access-class” command.
The “access-group” command is only used to apply an access list to a physical interface -> C is
not correct.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username &
password to prevent unauthorized login.
QUESTION NO: 215
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port
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FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
B. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C. SW1#show running-config
D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
E. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
Answer: C,D
Explanation: Explanation
We can verify whether port security has been configured by using the “show running-config” or
“show port-security interface ” for more detail. An example of the output of “show port-security
interface ” command is shown below:
QUESTION NO: 216
Refer to the exhibit.
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The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when
this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out
fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be
forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be
forwarded out fa0/1.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The configuration shown here is an example of port security, specifically port security using sticky
addresses. You can use port security with dynamically learned and static MAC addresses to
restrict a port’s ingress traffic by limiting the MAC addresses that are allowed to send traffic into
the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward
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ingress traffic that has source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the
number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the device
attached to that port has the full bandwidth of the port.
Port security with sticky MAC addresses provides many of the same benefits as port security with
static MAC addresses, but sticky MAC addresses can be learned dynamically. Port security with
sticky MAC addresses retains dynamically learned MAC addresses during a link-down condition.
QUESTION NO: 217
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco
switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from
that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from
that address are received.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the interface configuration mode, the command switchport port-security mac-address sticky
enables sticky learning. When entering this command, the interface converts all the dynamic
secure MAC addresses to sticky secure MAC addresses.
Topic 7, Troubleshooting
QUESTION NO: 218 DRAG DROP
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Answer:
Explanation:
A simple way to find out which layer is having problem is to remember this rule: “the first statement
is for Layer 1, the last statement is for Layer 2 and if Layer 1 is down then surely Layer 2 will be
down too”, so you have to check Layer 1 before checking Layer 2. For example, from the output
“Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down” we know that it is a layer 2 problem because the first
statement (Serial0/1 is up) is good while the last statement (line protocol is down) is bad. For the
statement “Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down”, both layers are down so the problem belongs
to Layer 1.
There is only one special case with the statement “…. is administrator down, line protocol is
down”. In this case, we know that the port is currently disabled and shut down by the
administrators.
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QUESTION NO: 219 DRAG DROP
Answer:
Explanation:
The question asks us to “begin with the lowest layer” so we have to begin with Layer 1: verify
physical connection; in this case an Ethernet cable connection. For your information, “verify
Ethernet cable connection” means that we check if the type of connection (crossover, straightthrough,
rollover…) is correct, the RJ45 headers are plugged in, the signal on the cable is
acceptable…
Next we “verify NIC operation”. We do this by simply making a ping to the loopback interface
127.0.0.1. If it works then the NIC card (layer 1, 2) and TCP/IP stack (layer 3) are working
properly.
Verify IP configuration belongs to layer 3. For example, checking if the IP can be assignable for
host, the PC’s IP is in the same network with the gateway…
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Verifying the URL by typing in your browser some popular websites like google.com,
microsoft.com to assure that the far end server is not down (it sometimes make we think we can’t
access to the Internet). We are using a URL so this step belongs to layer 7 of the OSI model.
QUESTION NO: 220
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are
shown. What is the problem?
A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
B. TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
D. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
E. Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Host1 tries to communicate with Host2. The message destination host unreachable from Router1
indicates that the problem occurs when the data is forwarded from Host1 to Host2. According to
the topology, we can infer that the link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
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QUESTION NO: 221
Refer to the exhibit.
Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the
output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that
is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
From the output we can see that there is a problem with the Serial 0/0 interface. It is enabled, but
the line protocol is down. The could be a result of mismatched encapsulation or the interface not
receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
QUESTION NO: 222
Refer to the exhibit.
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An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which
OSI layer is the problem?
A. data link layer
B. application layer
C. access layer
D. session layer
E. network layer
Answer: E
Explanation:
The command ping uses ICMP protocol, which is a network layer protocol used to propagate
control message between host and router. The command ping is often used to verify the network
connectivity, so it works at the network layer.
QUESTION NO: 223
Refer to the exhibit.
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The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most
effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Answer: B,D,F
Explanation: Explanation
The ports on the switch are not up indicating it is a layer 1 (physical) problem so we should check
cable type, power and how they are plugged in.
QUESTION NO: 224
Refer to the exhibit.
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The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following
will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The switch 1 is configured with two VLANs: VLAN1 and VLAN2.
The IP information of member Host A in VLAN1 is as follows:
Address : 10.1.1.126
Mask : 255.255.255.0
Gateway : 10.1.1.254
The IP information of member Host B in VLAN2 is as follows:
Address : 10.1.1.12
Mask : 255.255.255.0
Gateway : 10.1.1.254
The configuration of sub-interface on router 2 is as follows:
Fa0/0.1 — 10.1.1.254/24 VLAN1
Fa0/0.2 — 10.1.2.254/24 VLAN2
It is obvious that the configurations of the gateways of members in VLAN2 and the associated
network segments are wrong. The layer3 addressing information of Host B should be modified as
follows:
Address : 10.1.2.X
Mask : 255.255.255.0
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QUESTION NO: 225
Refer to the exhibit.
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected
to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being
disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal
network function would resume.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that utilizes a special-purpose algorithm to
discover physical loops in a network and effect a logical loop-free topology. STP creates a loopfree
tree structure consisting of leaves and branches that span the entire Layer 2 network. The
actual mechanics of how bridges communicate and how the STP algorithm works will be
discussed at length in the following topics. Note that the terms bridge and switch are used
interchangeably when discussing STP. In addition, unless otherwise indicated, connections
between switches are assumed to be trunks.
QUESTION NO: 226
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Refer to the exhibit.
HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this
problem?
A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
Now let’s find out the range of the networks on serial link:
For the network 192.168.1.62/27:
Increment: 32
Network address: 192.168.1.32
Broadcast address: 192.168.1.63
For the network 192.168.1.65/27:
Increment: 32
Network address: 192.168.1.64
Broadcast address: 192.168.1.95
-> These two IP addresses don’t belong to the same network and they can’t see each other
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QUESTION NO: 227
Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose
three.)
A. ping
B. tracert
C. ipconfig
D. show ip route
E. winipcfg
F. show interfaces
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
Ping, show ip route, and show interfaces are all valid troubleshooting IOS commands. Tracert,
ipconfig, and winipcfg are PC commands, not IOS.
QUESTION NO: 228
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The
routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2.
Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
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D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In OSPF, the hello and dead intervals must match and here we can see the hello interval is set to
5 on R1 and 10 on R2. The dead interval is also set to 20 on R1 but it is 40 on R2.
QUESTION NO: 229
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a
switched LAN?
A. during high traffic periods
B. after broken links are re-established
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology
E. when a dual ring topology is in use
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
If we connect two switches via 2 or more links and do not enable STP on these switches then a
loop (which creates multiple copies of the same unicast frame) will occur. It is an example of an
improperly implemented redundant topology.
QUESTION NO: 230
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Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?
A. Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1.
B. Change the ip access-group command on fa0/0 from “in* to “out.
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C. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 115 in.
D. Remove access-group 102 out from interface s0/0/0 and add access-group 114 in
E. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Let’s have a look at the access list 104:
The question does not ask about ftp traffic so we don’t care about the two first lines. The 3rd line
denies all telnet traffic and the 4th line allows icmp traffic to be sent (ping). Remember that the
access list 104 is applied on the inbound direction so the 5th line “access-list 104 deny icmp any
any echo-reply” will not affect our icmp traffic because the “echo-reply” message will be sent over
the outbound direction.
QUESTION NO: 231
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What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?
A. Attempts to telnet to the router would fail.
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B. It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network.
C. IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not.
D. Routing protocol updates for the 10.4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0
interface.
Answer: B
Explanation:
From the output of access-list 114: access-list 114 permit ip 10.4.4.0 0.0.0.255 any we can easily
understand that this access list allows all traffic (ip) from 10.4.4.0/24 network
QUESTION NO: 232
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–
What would be the effect of Issuing the command ip access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?
No host could connect to RouterC through s0/0/1.
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A. Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail.
B. FTP, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail.
C. Only traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network would pass through the interface.
Answer: A
Explanation:
First let’s see what was configured on interface S0/0/1:
QUESTION NO: 233 CORRECT TEXT
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Answer: On the MGT Router:
Config t
Router eigrp 12
Network 192.168.77.0
QUESTION NO: 234 CORRECT TEXT
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A network associate is configuring a router for the weaver company to provide internet access.
The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110.
The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the
company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 –
192.168.100.30.
Answer: The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously but
we just have 6 public IP addresses from 198.18.184.105 to 198.18.184.110/29.
Therefore we have to use NAT overload (or PAT)
Double click on the Weaver router to open it
Router>enable
Router#configure terminal
First you should change the router’s name to Weaver
Router(config)#hostname Weaver
Create a NAT pool of global addresses to be allocated with their netmask.
Weaver(config)#ip nat pool mypool 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110 netmask
255.255.255.248
Create a standard access control list that permits the addresses that are to be
translated
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Weaver(config)#access-list 1 permit 192.168.100.16 0.0.0.15
Establish dynamic source translation, specifying the access list that was defined
in the prior step
Weaver(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool overload
This command translates all source addresses that pass access list 1, which
means a source address from 192.168.100.17 to 192.168.100.30, into an
address from the pool named mypool (the pool contains addresses from
198.18.184.105 to 198.18.184.110)
Overload keyword allows to map multiple IP addresses to a single registered IP
address (many-to-one) by using different ports
The question said that appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT
inside and NAT outside statements.
This is how to configure the NAT inside and NAT outside, just for your
understanding:
Weaver(config)#interface fa0/0
Weaver(config-if)#ip nat inside
Weaver(config-if)#exit
Weaver(config)#interface s0/0
Weaver(config-if)#ip nat outside
Weaver(config-if)#end
Finally, we should save all your work with the following command:
Weaver#copy running-config startup-config
Check your configuration by going to “Host for testing” and type:
C :\>ping 192.0.2.114
The ping should work well and you will be replied from 192.0.2.114
QUESTION NO: 235 CORRECT TEXT
Central Florida Widgets recently installed a new router in their office. Complete the network
installation by performing the initial router configurations and configuring R1PV2 routing using the
router command line interface (CLI) on the RC.
Configure the router per the following requirements:
Name of the router is R2
Enable. secret password is cisco
The password to access user EXEC mode using the console is cisco2
The password to allow telnet access to the router is cisco3
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IPV4 addresses mast be configured as follows:
Ethernet network 209.165.201.0/27 – router has fourth assignable host address in subnet
Serial network is 192.0.2.176/28 – router has last assignable host address in the subnet.
Interfaces should be enabled.
Router protocol is RIPV2
Attention:
In practical examinations, please note the following, the actual information will prevail.
1. Name or the router is xxx
2. EnablE. secret password is xxx
3. Password In access user EXEC mode using the console is xxx
4. The password to allow telnet access to the router is xxx
5. IP information
Answer: Router>enable
Router#config terminal
Router(config)#hostname R2
R2(config)#enable secret Cisco 1
R2(config)#line console 0
R2(config-line)#password Cisco 2
R2(config-line)#exit
R2(config)#line vty 0 4
R2(config-line)#password Cisco 3
R2(config-line)#login
R2(config-line)#exit
R2(config)#interface faO/0
R2(config-if)#ip address 209.165.201.4 255.255.255.224
R2(config)#interface s0/0/0
R2(config-if)#ip address 192.0.2.190 255.255.255.240
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R2(config-if)#no shutdown
R2(config-if)#exit
R2(config)#router rip
R2(config-router)#version 2
R2(config-router)#network 209.165.201.0
R2(config-router)#network 192.0.2.176
R2(config-router)#end
R2#copy run start
QUESTION NO: 236 CORRECT TEXT
Answer: Select the console on Corp1 router
Configuring ACL
Corp1>enable
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Corp1#configure terminal
comment: To permit only Host C (192.168.33.3){source addr} to access finance server address
(172.22.242.23) {destination addr} on port number 80 (web)
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 192.168.33.3 host 172.22.242.23 eq 80
comment: To deny any source to access finance server address (172.22.242.23) {destination
addr} on port number 80 (web)
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 deny tcp any host 172.22.242.23 eq 80
comment: To permit ip protocol from any source to access any destination because of the implicit
deny any any statement at the end of ACL.
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit ip any any
Applying the ACL on the Interface
comment: Check show ip interface brief command to identify the interface type and number by
checking the IP address configured.
Corp1(config)#interface fa 0/1
If the ip address configured already is incorrect as well as the subnet mask. this should be
corrected in order ACL to work
type this commands at interface mode :
no ip address 192.x.x.x 255.x.x.x (removes incorrect configured ipaddress and subnet mask)
Configure Correct IP Address and subnet mask :
ip address 172.22.242.30 255.255.255.240 ( range of address specified going to server is given as
172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30 )
comment: Place the ACL to check for packets going outside the interface towards the finance web
server.
Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 100 out
Corp1(config-if)#end
Important: To save your running config to startup before exit.
Corp1#copy running-config startup-config
Verifying the Configuration :
Step1: show ip interface brief command identifies the interface on which to apply access list.
Step2: Click on each host A,B,C & D . Host opens a web browser page , Select address box of the
web browser and type the ip address of finance web server(172.22.242.23) to test whether it
permits /deny access to the finance web Server .
Step 3: Only Host C (192.168.33.3) has access to the server . If the other host can also access
then maybe something went wrong in your configuration . check whether you configured correctly
and in order.
Step 4: If only Host C (192.168.33.3) can access the Finance Web Server you can click on NEXT
button to successfully submit the ACL SIM.
QUESTION NO: 237 CORRECT TEXT
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Answer: Corp1#conf t
Corp1(config)# access-list 128 permit tcp host 192.168.240.1 host 172.22.141.26 eq www
Corp1(config)# access-list 128 deny tcp any host 172.22.141.26 eq www
Corp1(config)# access-list 128 permit ip any any
Corp1(config)#int fa0/1
Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 128 out
Corp1(config-if)#end
Corp1#copy run startup-config
QUESTION NO: 238 CORRECT TEXT
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Answer: Corp1>enable
Corp1#configure terminal
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 192.168.33.3 host 172.22.242.23 eq 80
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 deny tcp 192.168.33.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.22.242.23 eq 80
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit ip any any
Corp1(config)#interface fa 0/1 sh ip int brief
Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 100 out
Corp1(config-if)#end
Corp1#copy running-config startup-config
Explanation:
Select the console on Corp1 router
Configuring ACL Corp1 >enable Corp1#configure terminal
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comment: To permit only Host C (192.168. 33. 3){source addr} to access finance server address
(172. 22. 242. 23)
{destination addr} on port number 80 (web)
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 192. 168. 33. 3 host 172. 22. 242. 23 eq 80
comment: To deny any source to access finance server address (172. 22. 242. 23) {destination
addr} on port number 80 (web)
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 deny tcp any host 172. 22. 242. 23 eq 80
comment: To permit ip protocol from any source to access any destination because of the implicit
deny any any statement at the end of ACL.
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit ip any any
Applying the ACL on the Interface
comment: Check show ip interface brief command to identify the interface type and number by
checking the IP address configured.
Corp1(config)#interface fa 0/1
If the ip address configured already is incorrect as well as the subnet mask, this should be
corrected in order
ACL to work
type this commands at interface mode :
no ip address 192. x. x. x 255. x. x. x (removes incorrect configured ip address and subnet mask)
Configure Correct IP Address and subnet mask:
ip address 172. 22. 242. 30 255. 255. 255. 240 (range of address specified going to server is
given as 172. 22. 242. 17-172. 22. 242. 30 )
comment: Place the ACL to check for packets going outside the interface towards the finance web
server.
Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 100 out
Corp1(config-if)#end
Important: To save your running config to startup before exit. Corp1#copy running-config startupconfig
Verifying the Configuration :
Step1: show ip interface brief command identifies the interface on which to apply access list.
Step2: Click on each host A,B,C & D. Host opens a web browser page, Select address box of the
web browser and type the ip address of finance web server(172. 22. 242. 23) to test whether it
permits /deny access to the finance web Server.
Step 3: Only Host C (192.168. 33. 3) has access to the server. If the other host can also access
then maybe something went wrong in your configuration check whether you configured correctly
and in order.
Step 4: If only Host C (192.168. 33. 3) can access the Finance Web Server you can click on NEXT
button to successfully submit the ACL SIM.
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Topic 8, WAN Technologies
QUESTION NO: 239
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does
this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been
detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the
address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to
trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of
the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report
to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses:
+ ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit data
+ INACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to
the remote router is not available
+ DELETED: the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame
Relay switch
+ STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by
using the “no keepalive” command). This status is rarely seen so it is ignored in some books.
QUESTION NO: 240 DRAG DROP
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Answer:
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 241
Refer to the exhibit.
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In the Frame Relay network, which IP addresses would be assigned to the interfaces with point-topoint
PVCs?
A. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 17: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24
DLCI 28: 192.168.10.3 /24
B. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24
DLCI 99: 192.168.12.1 /24
DLCI 28: 192.168.13.1 /24
C. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24
DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24
DLCI 28: 192.168.11.2 /24
D. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 17: 192.168.10.2 /24
DLCI 99: 192.168.10.3 /24
DLCI 28: 192.168.10.4 /24
Answer: C
Explanation:
With point to point PVC, each connection needs to be in a separate subnet. The R2-R1 connection
(DLCI 16 to 99) would have each router within the same subnet. Similarly, the R3-R1 connection
would also be in the same subnet, but it must be in a different one than the R2-R1 connection.
QUESTION NO: 242
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Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a
serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Answer: B
Explanation:
This command tells the router to first use CHAP and then go to PAP if CHAP isn’t available.
QUESTION NO: 243
Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide
secure end-to-end communications?
A. RSA
B. L2TP
C. IPsec
D. PPTP
Answer: C
Explanation:
IPSec is a framework of open standards that provides data confidentiality, data integrity, and data
authentication between participating peers at the IP layer. IPSec can be used to protect one or
more data flows between IPSec peers.
QUESTION NO: 244
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answer: A
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Explanation:
The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol
datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for
transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol (layer 2 in the OSI model )
QUESTION NO: 245
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of
the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Broadcast is added to the configurations of the frame relay, so the PVC supports broadcast,
allowing the routing protocol updates that use the broadcast update mechanism to be forwarded
across itself.
QUESTION NO: 246
Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)
A. PPP
B. WAP
C. DSL
D. L2TPv3
E. Ethernet
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol
datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for
transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol used for WAN connections.
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DSL is also considered a WAN connection, as it can be used to connect networks, typically when
used with VPN technology.
QUESTION NO: 247
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and
has built-in security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Answer: B
Explanation:
PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and
asynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols, including
IP. PPP also has built-in security mechanisms, such as Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).
QUESTION NO: 248
Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?
A. IETF
B. ANSI Annex D
C. Q9333-A Annex A
D. HDLC
Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation
Cisco supports two Frame Relay encapsulation types: the Cisco encapsulation and the IETF
Frame Relay encapsulation, which is in conformance with RFC 1490 and RFC 2427. The former
is often used to connect two Cisco routers while the latter is used to connect a Cisco router to a
non-Cisco router. You can test with your Cisco router when typing the command Router(config-if)#
encapsulation frame-relay ? on a WAN link. Below is the output of this command (notice Cisco is
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the default encapsulation so it is not listed here, just press Enter to use it).
Note: Three LMI options are supported by Cisco routers are ansi, Cisco, and Q933a. They
represent the ANSI Annex D, Cisco, and ITU Q933-A (Annex A) LMI types, respectively.
HDLC is a WAN protocol same as Frame-Relay and PPP so it is not a Frame Relay encapsulation
type.
QUESTION NO: 249
RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.
After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. incorrect bandwidth configuration
B. incorrect LMI configuration
C. incorrect map statement
D. incorrect IP address
Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation
With this topology and the DLCI, we can only think of “incorrect map statement”. From the
topology we can deduce traffic with a DLCI of 75 will be sent to 192.168.2.1 but the text below
wrongly shows “DLCI 50 for the next router 192.168.2.1 -> .
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QUESTION NO: 250
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map
command shown?
A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B. The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.
C. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
D. The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay
cloud.
E. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned
through Inverse ARP.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP) was developed to provide a mechanism for
dynamic DLCI to Layer 3 address maps. Inverse ARP works much the same way Address
Resolution Protocol (ARP) works on a LAN. However, with ARP, the device knows the Layer 3 IP
address and needs to know the remote data link MAC address. With Inverse ARP, the router
knows the Layer 2 address which is the DLCI, but needs to know the remote Layer 3 IP address.
When using dynamic address mapping, Inverse ARP requests a next-hop protocol address for
each active PVC. Once the requesting router receives an Inverse ARP response, it updates its
DLCI-to-Layer 3 address mapping table. Dynamic address mapping is enabled by default for all
protocols enabled on a physical interface. If the Frame Relay environment supports LMI
autosensing and Inverse ARP, dynamic address mapping takes place automatically. Therefore, no
static address mapping is required.
QUESTION NO: 251
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote
location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network
administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
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A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Answer: B
Explanation:
With serial point to point links there are two options for the encapsulation. The default, HDLC, is
Cisco proprietary and works only with other Cisco routers. The other option is PPP which is
standards based and supported by all vendors.
QUESTION NO: 252
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might
implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
IPsec offer a number of advantages over point to point WAN links, particularly when multiple
locations are involved. These include reduced cost, increased security since all traffic is encrypted,
and increased scalability as s single WAN link can be used to connect to all locations in a VPN,
where as a point to point link would need to be provisioned to each location.
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QUESTION NO: 253
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)
A. the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B. the value of the local DLCI
C. the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D. the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E. the IP address of the local router
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Sample “show frame-relay map” output:
R1#sh frame mapSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.1 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), dynamic,broadcast,, status
defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.3 dlci 403(0x193,0x6430), dynamic,broadcast,, status
defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.4 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), static,CISCO, status defined,
active
QUESTION NO: 254
Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow.
The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded.
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Based on the partial output of the Router# show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic,
which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing
congestion?
A. DLCI = 100
B. last time PVC status changed 00:25:40
C. in BECN packets 192
D. in FECN packets 147
E. in DE packets 0
Answer: C
Explanation:
If device A is sending data to device B across a Frame Relay infrastructure and one of the
intermediate Frame Relay switches encounters congestion, congestion being full buffers, oversubscribed
port, overloaded resources, etc, it will set the BECN bit on packets being returned to
the sending device and the FECN bit on the packets being sent to the receiving device.
QUESTION NO: 255
Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay
link?
A. show frame-relay lmi
B. show frame-relay map
C. show frame-relay pvc
D. show interfaces serial
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting Cisco devices with non-Cisco devices, you must use IETF4 encapsulation on
both devices. Check the encapsulation type on the Cisco device with the show frame-relay map
exec command.
QUESTION NO: 256
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay
virtual circuit. Which of the following procedures are required to accomplish this task? (Choose
three.)
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A. Remove the IP address from the physical interface.
B. Encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP.
C. Create the virtual interfaces with the interface command.
D. Configure each subinterface with its own IP address.
E. Disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks.
F. Configure static Frame Relay map entries for each subinterface network.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
For multiple PVC’s on a single interface, you must use subinterfaces, with each subinterface
configured for each PVC. Each subinterface will then have its own IP address, and no IP address
will be assigned to the main interface.
QUESTION NO: 257
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.
Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the
Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible
(DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network.
Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to
identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.
QUESTION NO: 258
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true?
(Choose two.)
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
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D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
CHAP is an authentication scheme used by Point to Point Protocol (PPP) servers to validate the
identity of remote clients. CHAP periodically verifies the identity of the client by using a three-way
handshake. This happens at the time of establishing the initial link (LCP), and may happen again
at any time afterwards. The verification is based on a shared secret (such as the client user’s
password).
QUESTION NO: 259
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement describes DLCI 17?
A. DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
B. DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
C. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
D. DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.
Answer: C
Explanation:
DLCI-Data Link Connection Identifier Bits: The DLCI serves to identify the virtual connection so
that the receiving end knows which information connection a frame belongs to. Note that this DLCI
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has only local significance. Frame Relay is strictly a Layer 2 protocol suite.
QUESTION NO: 260
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Answer: D
Explanation:
This command identifies the DLCI that should be used for all packets destined to the 192.168.1.2
address. In this case, DLCI 202 should be used.
QUESTION NO: 261
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SLIP
D. LCP
E. DLCI
Answer: D
Explanation:
The PPP Link Control Protocol (LCP) is documented in RFC 1661. LPC negotiates link and PPP
parameters to dynamically configure the data link layer of a PPP connection. Common LCP
options include the PPP MRU, the authentication protocol, compression of PPP header fields,
callback, and multilink options.
QUESTION NO: 262
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What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Subinterfaces are used for point to point frame relay connections, emulating virtual point to point
leased lines. Each subinterface requires a unique IP address/subnet. Remember, you can not
assign multiple interfaces in a router that belong to the same IP subnet.
QUESTION NO: 263
What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static
configuration?
A. show frame-relay pvc
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame relay end-to-end
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sample “show frame-relay map” output:
R1#sh frame mapSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.1 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), dynamic,broadcast,, status
defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.3 dlci 403(0x193,0x6430), dynamic,broadcast,, status
defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.4 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), static,CISCO, status defined,
active
QUESTION NO: 264
What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
A. to map a known IP address to a MAC address
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B. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
C. to map a known MAC address to an IP address
D. to map a known DLCI to an IP address
E. to map a known IP address to a SPID
F. to map a known SPID to a MAC address
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic address mapping relies on the Frame Relay Inverse Address Resolution Protocol
(Inverse ARP), defined by RFC 1293, to resolve a next hop network protocol (IP) address to a
local DLCI value. The Frame Relay router sends out Inverse ARP requests on its Frame Relay
PVC to discover the protocol address of the remote device connected to the Frame Relay network.
The responses to the Inverse ARP requests are used to populate an address-to-DLCI mapping
table on the Frame Relay router or access server. The router builds and maintains this address-to-
DLCI mapping table, which contains all resolved Inverse ARP requests, including both dynamic
and static mapping entries.
Topic 9, Mix Questions Set
QUESTION NO: 265
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Answer: C
Explanation: With HSRP, two or more devices support a virtual router with a fictitious MAC
address and unique IP address. There are two version of HSRP.
+ With HSRP version 1, the virtual router’s MAC address is 0000.0c07.ACxx , in which xx is the
HSRP group.
+ With HSRP version 2, the virtual MAC address if 0000.0C9F.Fxxx, in which xxx is the HSRP
group.
Note: Another case is HSRP for IPv6, in which the MAC address range from 0005.73A0.0000
through 0005.73A0.0FFF.
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QUESTION NO: 266
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Answer: A
Explanation: One disadvantage of HSRP and VRRP is that only one router is in use, other
routers must wait for the primary to fail because they can be used. However, Gateway Load
Balancing Protocol (GLBP) can use of up to four routers simultaneously. In GLBP, there is still
only one virtual IP address but each router has a different virtual MAC address. First a GLBP
group must elect an Active Virtual Gateway (AVG). The AVG is responsible for replying ARP
requests from hosts/clients. It replies with different virtual MAC addresses that correspond to
different routers (known as Active Virtual Forwarders – AVFs) so that clients can send traffic to
different routers in that GLBP group (load sharing).
QUESTION NO: 267
Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?
A. It monitors traffic flow and link utilization.
B. It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group.
C. It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links.
D. It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.
Answer: B
Explanation: Object tracking is the process of tracking the state of a configured object and uses
that state to determine the priority of the VRRP router in a VRRP group
QUESTION NO: 268
What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)
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A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 269
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the
same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on
the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load
balancing.
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation: The virtual MAC address of HSRP version 1 is 0000.0C07.ACxx, where xx is the
HSRP group number in hexadecimal based on the respective interface. For example, HSRP group
10 uses the HSRP virtual MAC address of 0000.0C07.AC0A. HSRP version 2 uses a virtual MAC
address of 0000.0C9F.FXXX (XXX: HSRP group in hexadecimal)
QUESTION NO: 270
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)
A. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
B. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router
disk space.
D. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP
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trap messages.
E. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
F. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 271
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three
message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)
A. informational
B. emergency
C. warning
D. critical
E. debug
F. error
Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 272
What is the default Syslog facility level?
A. local4
B. local5
C. local6
D. local7
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 273
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
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A. service timestamps log datetime localtime
B. service timestamps debug datetime msec
C. service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D. service timestamps log datetime msec
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
The “service timestamps debug” command configures the system to apply a time stamp to
debugging messages. The time-stamp format for datetime is MMM DD HH:MM:SS, where MMM is
the month, DD is the date, HH is the hour (in 24-hour notation), MM is the minute, and SS is the
second. With the additional keyword msec, the system includes milliseconds in the time stamp, in
the format HH:DD:MM:SS.mmm, where .mmm is milliseconds
QUESTION NO: 274
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?
A. The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link.
B. The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing
the adjacency to go down.
C. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.
D. Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 275
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)
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A. MIB
B. agent
C. set
D. AES
E. supervisor
F. manager
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 276
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)
A. MIB
B. agent
C. set
D. AES
E. supervisor
F. manager
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 277
What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?
A. response
B. get
C. trap
D. capture
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 278
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?
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A. HMAC-MD5
B. HMAC-SHA
C. CBC-DES
D. community strings
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 279
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
B. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
D. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
E. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation: SNMPv1/v2 can neither authenticate the source of a management message nor
provide encryption. Without authentication, it is possible for nonauthorized users to exercise
SNMP network management functions. It is also possible for nonauthorized users to eavesdrop on
management information as it passes from managed systems to the management system.
Because of these deficiencies, many SNMPv1/v2 implementations are limited to simply a readonly
capability, reducing their utility to that of a network monitor; no network control applications
can be supported. To correct the security deficiencies of SNMPv1/v2, SNMPv3 was issued as a
set of Proposed Standards in January 1998. -> A is correct.
The two additional messages are added in SNMP2 (compared to SNMPv1)
GetBulkRequest The GetBulkRequest message enables an SNMP manager to access large
chunks of data. GetBulkRequest allows an agent to respond with as much information as will fit in
the response PDU. Agents that cannot provide values for all variables in a list will send partial
information. -> E is correct.
InformRequest The InformRequest message allows NMS stations to share trap information. (Traps
are issued by SNMP agents when a device change occurs.) InformRequest messages are
generally used between NMS stations, not between NMS stations and agents. -> C is correct.
Note: These two messages are carried over SNMPv3.
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QUESTION NO: 280
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion.
B. To authorize user network access.
C. To report and alert link up / down instances.
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of
Service.
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation: Explanation
NetFlow facilitates solutions to many common problems encountered by IT professionals.
+ Analyze new applications and their network impact
Identify new application network loads such as VoIP or remote site additions.
+ Reduction in peak WAN traffic
Use NetFlow statistics to measure WAN traffic improvement from application-policy changes;
understand who is utilizing the network and the network top talkers.
+ Troubleshooting and understanding network pain points
Diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs and bandwidth utilization quickly with
command line interface or reporting tools. -> D is correct.
+ Detection of unauthorized WAN traffic
Avoid costly upgrades by identifying the applications causing congestion. -> A is correct.
+ Security and anomaly detection
NetFlow can be used for anomaly detection and worm diagnosis along with applications such as
Cisco CS-Mars.
+ Validation of QoS parameters
Confirm that appropriate bandwidth has been allocated to each Class of Service (CoS) and that no
CoS is over- or under-subscribed.-> F is correct.
QUESTION NO: 281
What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?
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A. flow monitor
B. flow record
C. flow sampler
D. flow exporter
Answer: A
Explanation: Flow monitors are the Flexible NetFlow component that is applied to interfaces to
perform network traffic monitoring. Flow monitors consist of a record and a cache. You add the
record to the flow monitor after you create the flow monitor. The flow monitor cache is
automatically created at the time the flow monitor is applied to the first interface. Flow data is
collected from the network traffic during the monitoring process based on the key and nonkey
fields in the record, which is configured for the flow monitor and stored in the flow monitor cache.
For example, the following example creates a flow monitor named FLOW-MONITOR-1 and enters
Flexible NetFlow flow monitor configuration mode:
Router(config)# flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1
Router(config-flow-monitor)#
QUESTION NO: 282
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network
performance?
A. SNMP
B. Netflow
C. WCCP
D. IP SLA
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 283
What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?
A. show ip flow export
B. show ip flow top-talkers
C. show ip cache flow
D. show mls sampling
E. show mls netflow ip
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Answer: C
Explanation: The “show ip cache flow” command displays a summary of the NetFlow accounting
statistics.
QUESTION NO: 284
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider
them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 285
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What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the
network? (Choose three.)
A. CPU utilization
B. where Netflow data will be sent
C. number of devices exporting Netflow data
D. port availability
E. SNMP version
F. WAN encapsulation
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 286
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1
configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?
A. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
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interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
D. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 287
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 288
What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?
A. speed
B. DTP negotiation settings
C. trunk encapsulation
D. duplex
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 289
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 290
Refer to the exhibit.
What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given output?
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A. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
D. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode on
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 291
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 292
Refer to the exhibit.
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If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?
A. SW1’s Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.
B. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces.
C. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces.
D. There is a speed mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 293
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through
each state?
A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state
Answer: B
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 294
A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel
group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?
A. the port-channel 1 interface
B. the highest number member interface
C. all member interfaces
D. the lowest number member interface
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 295
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to
area 0?
A. router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
B. router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
C. router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
D. router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
E. router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
F. router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 296
Refer to the exhibit.
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If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value
will OSPF use as its router ID?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 1.1.1.1
D. 2.2.2.2
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 297
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 298
Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?
A. It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.
B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.
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C. It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.
D. It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 299
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)
A. MIB
B. SNMP Manager
C. SysLog Server
D. SNMP Agent
E. Set
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation: SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for
communication between SNMP managers and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework
and a common language used for the monitoring and management of devices in a network.
The SNMP framework has three parts:
+ An SNMP manager
+ An SNMP agent
+ A Management Information Base (MIB)
The SNMP manager is the system used to control and monitor the activities of network hosts
using SNMP. The most common managing system is called a Network Management System
(NMS). The term NMS can be applied to either a dedicated device used for network management,
or the applications used on such a device. A variety of network management applications are
available for use with SNMP. These features range from simple command-line applications to
feature-rich graphical user interfaces (such as the CiscoWorks2000 line of products).
The SNMP agent is the software component within the managed device that maintains the data for
the device and reports these data, as needed, to managing systems. The agent and MIB reside on
the routing device (router, access server, or switch). To enable the SNMP agent on a Cisco
routing device, you must define the relationship between the manager and the agent.
The Management Information Base (MIB) is a virtual information storage area for network
management information, which consists of collections of managed objects.
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QUESTION NO: 300
What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved? (Choose three)
A. Flash
B. The logging buffer .RAM
C. The console terminal
D. Other terminals
E. Syslog server
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation: Explanation
By default, switches send the output from system messages and debug privileged EXEC
commands to a logging process. The logging process controls the distribution of logging
messages to various destinations, such as the logging buffer (on RAM), terminal lines (console
terminal), or a UNIX syslog server, depending on your configuration. The process also sends
messages to the console.
Note: Syslog messages can be written to a file in Flash memory although it is not a popular place
to use. We can configure this feature with the command
logging file flash:filename.
QUESTION NO: 301
Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose four)
A. Emergencies
B. Alerts
C. Critical
D. Errors
E. Warnings
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation: Explanation
The Message Logging is divided into 8 levels as listed below:
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Level Keyword Description
0 emergencies System is unusable
1 alerts Immediate action is needed
2 critical Critical conditions exist
3 errors Error conditions exist
4 warnings Warning conditions exist
5 notification Normal, but significant, conditions exist
6 informational Informational messages
7 debugging Debugging messages
The highest level is level 0 (emergencies). The lowest level is level 7. If you specify a level with the
“logging console level” command, that level and all the higher levels will be displayed. For
example, by using the “logging console warnings” command, all the logging of emergencies,
alerts, critical, errors, warnings will be displayed.
QUESTION NO: 302
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation: NetFlow traditionally enables several key customer applications including:
+ Network Monitoring – NetFlow data enables extensive near real time network monitoring
capabilities. Flow-based analysis techniques may be utilized to visualize traffic patterns associated
with individual routers and switches as well as on a network-wide basis (providing aggregate traffic
or application based views) to provide proactive problem detection, efficient troubleshooting, and
rapid problem resolution.
+ Application Monitoring and Profiling – NetFlow data enables network managers to gain a
detailed, time-based, view of application usage over the network. This information is used to plan,
understand new services, and allocate network and application resources (e.g. Web server sizing
and VoIP deployment) to responsively meet customer demands.
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+ User Monitoring and Profiling – NetFlow data enables network engineers to gain detailed
understanding of customer/user utilization of network and application resources. This information
may then be utilized to efficiently plan and allocate access, backbone and application resources as
well as to detect and resolve potential security and policy violations.
+ Network Planning – NetFlow can be used to capture data over a long period of time producing
the opportunity to track and anticipate network growth and plan upgrades to increase the number
of routing devices, ports, or higher- bandwidth interfaces. NetFlow services data optimizes network
planning including peering, backbone upgrade planning, and routing policy planning. NetFlow
helps to minimize the total cost of network operations while maximizing network performance,
capacity, and reliability. NetFlow detects unwanted WAN traffic, validates bandwidth and Quality of
Service (QOS) and allows the analysis of new network applications. NetFlow will give you valuable
information to reduce the cost of operating your network.
+ Security Analysis – NetFlow identifies and classifies DDOS attacks, viruses and worms in realtime.
Changes in network behavior indicate anomalies that are clearly demonstrated in NetFlow
data. The data is also a valuable forensic tool to understand and replay the history of security
incidents.
+ Accounting/Billing – NetFlow data provides fine-grained metering (e.g. flow data includes details
such as IP addresses, packet and byte counts, timestamps, type-of-service and application ports,
etc.) for highly flexible and detailed resource utilization accounting. Service providers may utilize
the information for billing based on time-of-day, bandwidth usage, application usage, quality of
service, etc. Enterprise customers may utilize the information for departmental charge-back or cost
allocation for resource utilization.
QUESTION NO: 303
Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?
A. Netflow
B. WCCP
C. IP SLA
D. SNMP
Answer: D
Explanation: Sometimes, messages like this might appear in the router console:
%SNMP-3-CPUHOG: Processing [chars] of [chars]
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They mean that the SNMP agent on the device has taken too much time to process a request.
You can determine the cause of high CPU use in a router by using the output of the show process
cpu command.
Note: A managed device is a part of the network that requires some form of monitoring and
management (routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers…).
QUESTION NO: 304
What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?
(Choose three)
A. IP address
B. Interface name
C. Port numbers
D. L3 protocol type
E. MAC address
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation: What is an IP Flow?
Each packet that is forwarded within a router or switch is examined for a set of IP packet
attributes. These attributes are the IP packet identity or fingerprint of the packet and determine if
the packet is unique or similar to other packets.
Traditionally, an IP Flow is based on a set of 5 and up to 7 IP packet attributes.
IP Packet attributes used by NetFlow:
+ IP source address
+ IP destination address
+ Source port
+ Destination port
+ Layer 3 protocol type
+ Class of Service
+ Router or switch interface
QUESTION NO: 305
What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?
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A. TRAP
B. INFORM
C. GET
D. SET
Answer: A,B
Explanation: A TRAP is a SNMP message sent from one application to another (which is typically
on a remote host). Their purpose is merely to notify the other application that something has
happened, has been noticed, etc. The big problem with TRAPs is that they’re unacknowledged so
you don’t actually know if the remote application received your oh-so-important message to it.
SNMPv2 PDUs fixed this by introducing the notion of an INFORM, which is nothing more than an
acknowledged TRAP.
QUESTION NO: 306
Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?
A. Message Integrity
B. Compression
C. Authentication
D. Encryption
E. Error Detection
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation: Cisco IOS software supports the following versions of SNMP:
+ SNMPv1 – The Simple Network Management Protocol: A Full Internet Standard, defined in RFC
1157. (RFC 1157 replaces the earlier versions that were published as RFC 1067 and RFC 1098.)
Security is based on community strings.
+ SNMPv2c – The community-string based Administrative Framework for SNMPv2. SNMPv2c (the
“c” stands for “community”) is an Experimental Internet Protocol defined in RFC 1901, RFC 1905,
and RFC 1906. SNMPv2c is an update of the protocol operations and data types of SNMPv2p
(SNMPv2 Classic), and uses the community-based security model of SNMPv1.
+ SNMPv3 – Version 3 of SNMP. SNMPv3 is an interoperable standards-based protocol defined
in RFCs 2273 to 2275. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by a combination of
authenticating and encrypting packets over the network. The security features provided in
SNMPv3 are as follows:
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– Message integrity: Ensuring that a packet has not been tampered with in transit.
– Authentication: Determining that the message is from a valid source.
– Encryption: Scrambling the contents of a packet prevent it from being learned by an
unauthorized source.
QUESTION NO: 307
In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?
A. AVF
B. AVG
C. Active Router
D. Standby Router
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 308
What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes the command
router(config)# logging trap 4 (Choose four)
A. Emergency
B. Notice
C. Alert
D. Error
E. Warning
Answer: A,C,D,E
Explanation: Explanation
The Message Logging is divided into 8 levels as listed below:
Level Keyword Description
0 emergencies System is unusable
1 alerts Immediate action is needed
2 critical Critical conditions exist
3 errors Error conditions exist
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4 warnings Warning conditions exist
5 notification Normal, but significant, conditions exist
6 informational Informational messages
7 debugging Debugging messages
If you specify a level with the “logging trap level” command, that level and all the higher levels will
be logged. For example, by using the “logging trap 4 command, all the logging of emergencies,
alerts, critical, errors, warnings will be logged.
QUESTION NO: 309
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other
remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main
office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branchl
office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A show running-config command on R3 and R4 shows that R4 is incorrectly configured for area 2:
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QUESTION NO: 310
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other
remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main
office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2
office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
The “show ip ospf interface command on R3 and R5 shows that the hello and dead intervals do
not match. They are 50 and 200 on R3 and 10 and 40 on R5.
QUESTION NO: 311
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other
remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main
office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
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R1 does not form an OSPF neighbor adjacency with R2. Which option would fix the issue?
A. R1 ethernetO/1 is shutdown. Configure no shutdown command.
B. R1 ethernetO/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25: configure no ip ospf
hello-interval 25
C. R2 ethernetO/1 and R3 ethernetO/O are configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of
25; configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25
D. Enable OSPF for R1 ethernetO/1; configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernetO/1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Looking at the configuration of R1, we see that R1 is configured with a hello interval of 25 on
interface Ethernet 0/1 while R2 is left with the default of 10 (not configured).
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QUESTION NO: 312
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other
remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main
office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R6 in the Branch3
office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; the username is not configured on R3 and R6.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R6.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using the show running-config command we see that R6 has been incorrectly configured with the
same router ID as R3 under the router OSPF process.
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QUESTION NO: 313
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links.
R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also
connected to the routers R4 and R5.
The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.
Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
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The loopback interfaces on R4 with the IP addresses of 10.4.4.4 /32, 10.4.4.5/32. and 10.4.4.6/32
are not appearing in the routing table of R5 Why are the interfaces missing?
A. The interfaces are shutdown, so they are not being advertised.
B. R4 has been incorrectly configured to be in another AS, so it does not peer with R5.
C. Automatic summarization is enabled, so only the 10.0.0.0 network is displayed.
D. The loopback addresses haven’t been advertised, and the network command is missing on R4.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
For an EIGRP neighbor to form, the following must match:
– Neighbors must be in the same subnet- K values- AS numbers- Authentication method and key
strings
Here, we see that R4 is configured for EIGRP AS 2, when it should be AS 1.
QUESTION NO: 314
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links.
R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also
connected to the routers R4 and R5.
The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.
Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
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Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5?
A. The traffic goes through R2.
B. The traffic goes through R3.
C. The traffic is equally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
D. The traffic is unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Using the “show ip int brief command” on R5 we can see the IP addresses assigned to this router.
Then, using the “show ip route” command on R1 we can see that to reach 10.5.5.5 and 10.5.5.55
the preferred path is via Serial 1/3, which we see from the diagram is the link to R2.
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QUESTION NO: 315
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links.
R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also
connected to the routers R4 and R5.
The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.
Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
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Router R6 does not form an EIGRP neighbor relationship correctly with router R1. What is the
cause for this misconfiguration?
A. The K values mismatch.
B. The AS does not match.
C. The network command is missing.
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D. The passive-interface command is enabled.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The link from R1 to R6 is shown below:
As you can see, they are both using e0/0. The IP addresses are in the 192.168.16.0 network:
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But when we look at the EIGRP configuration, the “network 192.168.16.0” command is missing on
R6.
Study the following output taken on R1:
R1# Ping 10.5.5.55 source 10.1.1.1
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.5.5.55, timeout is 2 seconds:
Packet sent with a source address of 10.1.1.1
…….
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
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QUESTION NO: 316
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links.
R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also
connected to the routers R4 and R5.
The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.
Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
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Why are the pings failing?
A. The network statement is missing on R5.
B. The loopback interface is shut down on R5.
C. The network statement is missing on R1.
D. The IP address that is configured on the Lo1 interface on R5 is incorrect.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
R5 does not have a route to the 10.1.1.1 network, which is the loopback0 IP address of R1. When
looking at the EIGRP configuration on R1, we see that the 10.1.1.1 network statement is missing
on R1.
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