1453 security questions with answers – CISSP – Certified Information Systems Security Professional

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1453 security questions with answers - CISSP – Certified Information Systems Security Professional

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QUESTION 1:
All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D
Policies are considered the first and highest level of documentation, from which the lower level
elements of standards, procedures, and guidelines flow. This order, however, does not mean that
policies are more important than the lower elements. These higher-level policies, which are the
more general policies and statements, should be created first in the process for strategic reasons,
and then the more tactical elements can follow. -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold
edition) pg 13
QUESTION 2:
A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A
Information security policies area high-level plans that describe the goals of the procedures.
Policies are not guidelines or standards, nor are they procedures or controls. Policies describe
security in general terms, not specifics. They provide the blueprints for an overall security
program just as a specification defines your next product – Roberta Bragg CISSP Certification
Training Guide (que) pg 206
QUESTION 4:
Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B
Procedures are looked at as the lowest level in the policy chain because they are closest to the
computers and provide detailed steps for configuration and installation issues. They provide the
steps to actually implement the statements in the policies, standards, and guidelines…Security
procedures, standards, measures, practices, and policies cover a number of different subject
areas. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 44-45
QUESTION 5:
Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A. Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B. Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C. Development of a security awareness-training program
D. Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A
QUESTION 6:
Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A. Information Systems
B. Human Resources
C. Business operations
D. Security administration
Answer: C
QUESTION 7:
What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to secure
them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet business
objectives.
Answer: D
Information security policies are high-level plans that describe the goals of the procedures or
controls. Policies describe security in general, not specifics. They provide the blueprint fro an
overall security program just as a specification defines your next product. – Roberta Bragg
CISSP Certification Training Guide (que) pg 587
QUESTION 8:
Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A
This really does not a reference as it should be known. Upper management is legally accountable (up to 290
million
fine). External organizations answer is not really to pertinent (however it stated that other organizations will
respect
a BCP and disaster recover plan). Employees need to be bound to the policy regardless of who signs it but it
gives
validity. Ownership is the correct answer in this statement. However, here is a reference. “Fundamentally
important
to any security program’s success us the senior management’s high-level statement of commitment to the
information security policy process and a senior management’s understanding of how important security
controls
and protections are to the enterprise’s continuity. Senior management must be aware of the importance of
security
implementation to preserve the organization’s viability (and for their own ‘due care’ protection) and must
publicly
support that process throughout the enterprise.” -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg
13
QUESTION 9:
In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C
An acceptable use policy is a document that the employee signs in which the expectations, roles
and responsibilities are outlined.
Issue -specific policies address specific security issues that management feels need more detailed
explanation and attention to make sure a comprehensive structure is built and all employees
understand how they are to comply to these security issues. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP
Certification Guide pg 62
QUESTION 10:
Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A
“A system-specific policy presents the management’s decisions that are closer to the actual computers,
networks,
applications, and data. This type of policy can provide an approved software list, which contains a list of
applications that can be installed on individual workstations. This policy can describe how databases are to be
protected, how computers are to be locked down, and how firewall, intrusion diction systems, and scanners are
to be
employed.” Pg 93 Shon Harris CISSP All-In-One Certification Exam Guide
QUESTION 11:
When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B
QUESTION 12:
Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B
QUESTION 13:
Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C
Regulatory Security policies are mandated to the organization but it up to them to implement it.
“Regulatory – This policy is written to ensure that the organization is following standards set by
a specific industry and is regulated by law. The policy type is detailed in nature and specific to a
type of industry. This is used in financial institutions, health care facilities, and public utilities.” –
Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 93-94
QUESTION 14:
Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C
Administrative, physical, and technical controls should be utilized to achieve the management’s
directives. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 60
QUESTION 15:
Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A. IS security specialists
B. Senior Management
C. Seniors security analysts
D. system auditors
Answer: B
QUESTION 16:
Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A. definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B. statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C. definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D. description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D
QUESTION 17:
In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A. Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B. Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C. Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D. Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C
QUESTION 18:
Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A. Standards
B. Guidelines
C. Procedures
D. Baselines
Answer: C
QUESTION 19:
A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Significant action: The quality or state that enables actions on an ADP system to be
traced to individuals who may then be held responsible. These actions include
violations and attempted violations of the security policy, as well as allowed actions.
QUESTION 20:
Network Security is a
A. Product
B. protocols
C. ever evolving process
D. quick-fix solution
Answer: C
QUESTION 21:
Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security is a continuous process; as such you must closely monitor your systems on a
regular basis. Log files are usually a good way to find an indication of abnormal
activities. However some care must be exercise as to what will be logged and how the
logs are protected. Having corrupted logs is about as good as not having logs at all.
QUESTION 22:
What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A. Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C. Integrity, availability, and accountability
D. Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B
QUESTION 23:
Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A. Communications security management and techniques
B. Networks security management and techniques
C. Clients security management and techniques
D. Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A
QUESTION 24:
Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A. Confidentiality
B. integrity
C. acceptability
D. availability
Answer: D
QUESTION 25:
Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A. Availability
B. Acceptability
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: A
QUESTION 26:
Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Most computer attacks only corrupt a system’s security in very specific ways. For
example, certain attacks may enable a hacker to read specific files but don’t allow
alteration of any system components. Another attack may allow a hacker to shut down
certain system components but doesn’t allow access to any files. Despite the varied
capabilities of computer attacks, they usually result in violation of only four
different security properties: availability, confidentiality, integrity, and control.
QUESTION 27:
Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C
There are several small and large objectives of a security program, but the main three principles
in all programs are confidentiality, integrity, and availability. These are referred to as the CIA
triad. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 62
QUESTION 28:
An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A. Netware availability
B. Network availability
C. Network acceptability
D. Network accountability
Answer: B
QUESTION 29:
The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A. The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B. The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C. The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D. The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A
The Telecommunications, Network, and Internet Security Domain encompasses the structures,
transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures used to provide integrity,
availability, authentication, and confidentiality for transmissions over private and public
communications networks and media.” Pg 515 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP
Exam
QUESTION 30:
Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C
QUESTION 31:
The security planning process must define how security will be managed, who will be
responsible, and
A. Who practices are reasonable and prudent for the enterprise.
B. Who will work in the security department.
C. What impact security will have on the intrinsic value of data.
D. How security measures will be tested for effectiveness.
Answer: D
QUESTION 32:
Information security is the protection of data. Information will be protected mainly based
on:
A. Its sensitivity to the company.
B. Its confidentiality.
C. Its value.
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Information security is the protection of data against accidental or malicious
disclosure, modification, or destruction. Information will be protected based on its
value, confidentiality, and/or sensitivity to the company, and the risk of loss or
compromise. At a minimum, information will be update-protected so that only authorized
individuals can modify or erase the information.
QUESTION 33:
Organizations develop change control procedures to ensure that
A. All changes are authorized, tested, and recorded.
B. Changes are controlled by the Policy Control Board (PCB).
C. All changes are requested, scheduled, and completed on time.
D. Management is advised of changes made to systems.
Answer: A
“Change Control: Changes must be authorized, tested, and recorded. Changed systems may
require re-certification and re-accreditation.” Pg 699 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP
Certification
QUESTION 34:
Within the organizational environment, the security function should report to an organizational level that
A. Has information technology oversight.
B. Has autonomy from other levels.
C. Is an external operation.
D. Provides the internal audit function.
Answer: B
QUESTION 35:
What is the MAIN purpose of a change control/management system?
A. Notify all interested parties of the completion of the change.
B. Ensure that the change meets user specifications.
C. Document the change for audit and management review.
D. Ensure the orderly processing of a change request.
Answer: C
QUESTION 36:
Which of the following is most relevant to determining the maximum effective cost of
access control?
A. the value of information that is protected
B. management’s perceptions regarding data importance
C. budget planning related to base versus incremental spending.
D. the cost to replace lost data
Answer: A
QUESTION 37:
Which one of the following is the MAIN goal of a security awareness program when addressing senior
management?
A. Provide a vehicle for communicating security procedures.
B. Provide a clear understanding of potential risk and exposure.
C. Provide a forum for disclosing exposure and risk analysis.
D. Provide a forum to communicate user responsibilities.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When the Security Officer is addressing Senior Management, the focus would not be on
user responsibilities, it would be on making sure the Senior Management have a clear
understanding of the risk and potential liability is
Not D: Item D would be correct in a situation where Senior Management is addressing
organizational staff.
QUESTION 38:
In developing a security awareness program, it is MOST important to
A. Understand the corporate culture and how it will affect security.
B. Understand employees preferences for information security.
C. Know what security awareness products are available.
D. Identify weakness in line management support.
Answer: A
The controls and procedures of a security program should reflect the nature of the data being processed…These
different types of companies would also have very different cultures. For a security awareness program to be
effective, these considerations must be understood and the program should be developed in a fashion that makes
sense per environment – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 109
QUESTION 39:
Which of the following would be best suited to provide information during a review of the
controls over the process of defining IT service levels?
A. Systems programmer
B. Legal stuff
C. Business unit manager
D. Programmer
Answer: C
QUESTION 40:
Which of the following best explains why computerized information systems frequently fail
to meet the needs of users?
A. Inadequate quality assurance (QA) tools
B. Constantly changing user needs
C. Inadequate user participation in defining the system’s requirements
D. Inadequate project management.
Answer: C
QUESTION 41:
Which of the following is not a compensating measure for access violations?
A. Backups
B. Business continuity planning
C. Insurance
D. Security awareness
Answer: D
QUESTION 42:
Risk analysis is MOST useful when applied during which phase of the system development
process?
A. Project identification
B. Requirements definition
C. System construction
D. Implementation planning
Answer: A
Reference: pg 684 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 43:
Which one of the following is not one of the outcomes of a vulnerability analysis?
A. Quantative loss assessment
B. Qualitative loss assessment
C. Formal approval of BCP scope and initiation document
D. Defining critical support areas
Answer: C
QUESTION 44:
Which of the following is not a part of risk analysis?
A. Identify risks
B. Quantify the impact of potential threats
C. Provide an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the associated
countermeasures
D. Choose the best countermeasure
Answer: D
QUESTION 45:
A new worm has been released on the Internet. After investigation, you have not been able to determine if
you are at risk of exposure. Management is concerned as they have heard that a number of their
counterparts are being affected by the worm. How could you determine if you are at risk?
A. Evaluate evolving environment.
B. Contact your anti-virus vendor.
C. Discuss threat with a peer in another organization.
D. Wait for notification from an anti-virus vendor.
Answer: B
QUESTION 46:
When conducting a risk assessment, which one of the following is NOT an acceptable social engineering
practice?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Misrepresentation
C. Subversion
D. Dumpster diving
Answer: A
Explanation:
Shoulder Surfing: Attackers can thwart confidentiality mechanisms by network
monitoring, shoulder surfing, stealing password files, and social engineering. These
topics will be address more in-depth in later chapters, but shoulder surfing is when a
person looks over another person’s shoulder and watches keystrokes or data as it appears
on the screen. Social engineering is tricking another person into sharing confidential
information by posing as an authorized individual to that information. Shon Harris:
CISSP Certification pg. 63. Shoulder surfing is not social engineering.
QUESTION 47:
Which one of the following risk analysis terms characterizes the absence or weakness of a
risk-reducing safegaurd?

A. Threat
B. Probability
C. Vulnerability
D. Loss expectancy
Answer: C
A weakness in system security procedures, system design, implementation, internal controls, and
so on that could be exploited to violate system security policy. -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP
Guide (gold edition) pg 927
QUESTION 48:
Risk is commonly expressed as a function of the
A. Systems vulnerabilities and the cost to mitigate.
B. Types of countermeasures needed and the system’s vulnerabilities.
C. Likelihood that the harm will occur and its potential impact.
D. Computer system-related assets and their costs.
Answer: C
The likelihood of a threat agent taking advantage of a vulnerability. A risk is the loss potential,
or probability, that a threat will exploit a vulnerability. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP
Certification Guide pg 937
QUESTION 49:
How should a risk be handled when the cost of the countermeasures outweighs the cost of
the risk?
A. Reject the risk
B. Perform another risk analysis
C. Accept the risk
D. Reduce the risk
Answer: C
QUESTION 50:
Which of the following is an advantage of a qualitative over quantitative risk analysis?
A. It prioritizes the risks and identifies areas for immediate improvement in addressing
the vulnerabilities.
B. It provides specific quantifiable measurements of the magnitude of the impacts
C. It makes cost-benefit analysis of recommended controls easier
Answer: A
QUESTION 51:
The absence or weakness in a system that may possibly be exploited is called a(n)?
A. Threat
B. Exposure
C. Vulnerability
D. Risk
Answer: C
QUESTION 52:
What tool do you use to determine whether a host is vulnerable to known attacks?
A. Padded Cells
B. Vulnerability analysis
C. Honey Pots
D. IDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Vulnerability analysis (also known as vulnerability assessment) tools test to determine
whether a network or host is vulnerable to known attacks. Vulnerability assessment
represents a special case of the intrusion detection process. The information sources
used are system state attributes and outcomes of attempted attacks. The information
sources are collected by a part of the assessment engine. The timing of analysis is
interval-based or batch-mode, and the type of analysis is misuse detection. This means
that vulnerability assessment systems are essentially batch mode misuse detectors that
operate on system state information and results of specified test routines.
QUESTION 53:
Which of the following statements pertaining to ethical hacking is incorrect?
A. An organization should use ethical hackers who do not sell auditing, consulting, hardware,
software, firewall, hosting, and/or networking services
B. Testing should be done remotely
C. Ethical hacking should not involve writing to or modifying the target systems
D. Ethical hackers should never use tools that have potential of exploiting vulnerabilities in the
organizations IT system.
Answer: D
QUESTION 54:
Why would an information security policy require that communications test equipment be
controlled?
A. The equipment is susceptible to damage
B. The equipment can be used to browse information passing on a network
C. The equipment must always be available for replacement if necessary
D. The equipment can be used to reconfigure the network multiplexers
Answer: B
QUESTION 55:
Management can expect penetration tests to provide all of the following EXCEPT
A. identification of security flaws
B. demonstration of the effects of the flaws
C. a method to correct the security flaws.
D. verification of the levels of existing infiltration resistance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Not B: It is not the objective of the pen tester to supply a method on how to correct the
flaws. In fact management may decide to accept the risk and not repair the flaw. They
may be able to demonstrate the effects of a flaw – especially if they manage to clobber a
system!
Penetration testing is a set of procedures designed to test and possibly bypass security
controls of a system. Its goal is to measure an organization’s resistance to an attack and to
uncover any weaknesses within the environment…The result of a penetration test is a
report given to management describing the list of vulnerabilities that were identified and
the severity of those vulnerabilities. From here, it is up to management to determine how
the vulnerabilities are dealt with and what countermeasures are implemented. – Shon
Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 837-839
QUESTION 56:
Which one of the following is a characteristic of a penetration testing project?
A. The project is open-ended until all known vulnerabilities are identified.
B. The project schedule is plotted to produce a critical path.
C. The project tasks are to break into a targeted system.
D. The project plan is reviewed with the target audience.
Answer: C
“One common method to test the strength of your security measures is to perform penetration
testing. Penetration testing is a vigorous attempt to break into a protected network using any
means necessary.” Pg 430 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide
QUESTION 57:
Which one of the following is the PRIMARY objective of penetration testing?
A. Assessment
B. Correction
C. Detection
D. Protection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Its goal is to measure an organization’s resistance to an attack and to uncover any weakness within the
environment…The result of a penetration test is a report given to management describing the list of
vulnerabilities that were identified and the severity of those vulnerabilities. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP
Certification Guide pg 837-839
Not A: Assessment would imply management deciding whether they can live with a given
vulnerability.
QUESTION 58:
Open box testing, in the Flaw Hypothesis Methodology of Penetration Testing applies to the analysis of
A. Routers and firewalls
B. Host-based IDS systems
C. Network-based IDS systems
D. General purpose operating systems
Answer: D
Explanation:
Flaw Hypothesis Methodology – A system analysis and penetration technique where
specifications and documentation for the system are analyzed and then flaws in the system are
hypothesized. The list of hypothesized flaws is then prioritized on the basis of the estimated
probability that a flaw actually exists and, assuming a flaw does exist, on the ease of exploiting it
and on the extent of control or compromise it would provide. The prioritized list is used to direct
the actual testing of the system.
http://www.kernel.org/pub/linux/libs/security/Orange-Linux/refs/Orange/Orange0-5.html
QUESTION 59:
What is the FIRST step that should be considered in a penetration test?
A. The approval of change control management.
B. The development of a detailed test plan.
C. The formulation of specific management objectives.
D. The communication process among team members.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The type of penetration test depends on the organization, its security objectives, and the
management’s goals. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 838
QUESTION 60:
Penetration testing will typically include
A. Generally accepted auditing practices.
B. Review of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) digital certificate, and encryption.
C. Social engineering, configuration review, and vulnerability assessment.
D. Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) procedures.
Answer: C
QUESTION 61:
Which of the following is not a valid reason to use external penetration service firms rather
than corporate resources?
A. They are more cost-effective
B. They offer a lack of corporate bias
C. They use highly talented ex-hackers
D. They insure a more complete reporting
Answer: C
QUESTION 62:
Which of the following tools can you use to assess your networks vulnerability?
A. ISS
B. All of the choices.
C. SATAN
D. Ballista
Answer: B
Explanation:
ISS, Ballista and SATAN are all penetration tools.
QUESTION 63:
Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) value is derived from an algorithm of the product of annual rate of
occurrence and
A. Cost of all losses expected.
B. Previous year’s actual loss.
C. Average of previous losses.
D. Single loss expectancy.
Answer: D
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) x Annualized Rate of Occurance (ARO) = ALE pg. 18 Krutz: The CISSP Prep
Guide
QUESTION 64:
If your property insurance has Actual Cost Evaluation (ACV) clause your damaged
property will be compensated:
A. Based on the value of the item on the date of loss
B. Based on new item for old regardless of condition of lost item
C. Based on value of item one month before loss
D. Based on value of item on the date of loss plus 10 percent
Answer: D
QUESTION 65:
How is Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) derived from a threat?
A. ARO x (SLE – EF)
B. SLE x ARO
C. SLE/EF
D. AV x EF
Answer: B
“SLE x annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) = ALE” pg 70 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP
Certification
QUESTION 66:
Qualitative loss resulting from the business interruption does not include:
A. Loss of revenue
B. Loss of competitive advantage or market share
C. Loss of public confidence and credibility
D. Public embarrassment
Answer: A
“Another method of risk analysis is qualitative, which does not assign numbers and monetary
valu8es to components and losses.” Pg 72 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 67:
Which risk management methodology uses the exposure factor multiplied by the asset value to determine its
outcome?
A. Annualized Loss Expectancy
B. Single Loss Expectancy
C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence
D. Information Risk Management
Answer: B
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) AN SLE is the dollar figure that is assigned to a single event. It
represents an organization’s loss from a single threat and is derived from the following formula:
Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) = SLE -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold
edition) pg 18
QUESTION 68:
Valuable paper insurance coverage does not cover damage to which of the following?
A. Inscribed, printed and written documents
B. Manuscripts
C. Records
D. Money and Securities
Answer: D
QUESTION 69:
What is the window of time for recovery of information processing capabilities based on?
A. Quality of the data to be processed
B. Nature of the disaster
C. Criticality of the operations affected
D. Applications that are mainframe based
Answer: C
QUESTION 70:
What is the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD):
A. Maximum elapsed time required to complete recovery of application data
B. Minimum elapsed time required to complete recovery of application data
C. Maximum elapsed time required to move back to primary site a major disruption
D. It is maximum delay businesses that can tolerate and still remain viable
Answer: D
“The MTD is the period of time a business function or process can remain interrupted before its
ability to recover becomes questionable.” Pg 678 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP
Exam
QUESTION 71:
A “critical application” is one that MUST
A. Remain operational for the organization to survive.
B. Be subject to continual program maintenance.
C. Undergo continual risk assessments.
D. Be constantly monitored by operations management.
Answer: A
I am assuming that I don’t need to put a reference for this answer. Yeah ok here it is but I cheated
and used a earlier reference
“A BIA is performed at the beginning of disaster recovery and continuity planning to identify the
areas that would suffer the greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster or
disruption. It identifies the company’s critical systems needed for survival and estimates the
outage time that can be tolerated by the company as a result of disaster or disruption.” – Shon
Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 597
QUESTION 72:
Which of the following questions is less likely to help in assessing physical and
environmental protection?
A. Are entry codes changed periodically?
B. Are appropriate fire suppression and prevention devices installed and working?
C. Are there processes to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot read, copy, alter, or steal
printed or electronic information?
D. Is physical access to data transmission lines controlled?
Answer: C
QUESTION 73:
A common Limitation of information classification systems is the INABILITY to
A. Limit the number of classifications.
B. Generate internal labels on diskettes.
C. Declassify information when appropriate.
D. Establish information ownership.
Answer: C
I could not find a reference for this. However I do agree that declassifying information is harder
to do the classifying, but use your best judgment based on experience and knowledge.
QUESTION 74:
The purpose of information classification is to

A. Assign access controls.
B. Apply different protective measures.
C. Define the parameters required for security labels.
D. Ensure separation of duties.
Answer: C
QUESTION 75:
Who should determine the appropriate access control of information?
A. Owner
B. User
C. Administrator
D. Server
Answer: A
Explanation:
All information generated, or used must have a designated owner. The owner must
determine appropriate sensitivity classifications, and access controls. The owner must
also take steps to ensure the appropriate controls for the storage, handling,
distribution, and use of the information in a secure manner.
QUESTION 76:
What is the main responsibility of the information owner?
A. making the determination to decide what level of classification the information requires
B. running regular backups
C. audit the users when they require access to the information
D. periodically checking the validity and accuracy for all data in the information system
Answer: A
QUESTION 77:
What process determines who is trusted for a given purpose?
A. Identification
B. Authorization
C. Authentication
D. Accounting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Authorization determines who is trusted for a given purpose. More precisely, it
determines whether a particular principal, who has been authenticated as the source of
a request to do something, is trusted for that operation. Authorization may also
include controls on the time at which something can be done (e.g. only during working
hours) or the computer terminal from which it can be requested (e.g. only the one on
the system administrator desk).
QUESTION 78:
The intent of least privilege is to enforce the most restrictive user rights required
A. To execute system processes.
B. By their job description.
C. To execute authorized tasks.
D. By their security role.
Answer: C
Least Privilege; the security principle that requires each subject to be granted the most restrictive set of
privileges
needed for the performance of authorized tasks. The application of this principle limits the damage that can
result
from accident, error, or unauthorized.
– Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 933
QUESTION 79:
What principle requires that a user be given no more privilege then necessary to perform a
job?
A. Principle of aggregate privilege.
B. Principle of most privilege.
C. Principle of effective privilege.
D. Principle of least privilege.
Answer: D
Explanation:
As described at http://hissa.nist.gov/rbac/paper/node5.html, the principle of least
privilege has been described as important for meeting integrity objectives. The
principle of least privilege requires that a user be given no more privilege than
necessary to perform a job.
QUESTION 80:
To ensure least privilege requires that __________ is identified.
A. what the users privilege owns
B. what the users job is
C. what the users cost is
D. what the users group is
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ensuring least privilege requires identifying what the user’s job is, determining the
minimum set of privileges required to perform that job, and restricting the user to a
domain with those privileges and nothing more. By denying to subjects transactions that
are not necessary for the performance of their duties, those denied privileges couldn’t
be used to circumvent the organizational security policy. Although the concept of least
privilege currently exists within the context of the TCSEC, requirements restrict those
privileges of the system administrator. Through the use of RBAC, enforced minimum
privileges for general system users can be easily achieved.
QUESTION 81:
The concept of least privilege currently exists within the context of:
A. ISO
B. TCSEC
C. OSI
D. IEFT
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ensuring least privilege requires identifying what the user’s job is, determining the
minimum set of privileges required to perform that job, and restricting the user to a
domain with those privileges and nothing more. By denying to subjects transactions that
are not necessary for the performance of their duties, those denied privileges couldn’t
be used to circumvent the organizational security policy. Although the concept of least
privilege currently exists within the context of the TCSEC, requirements restrict those
privileges of the system administrator. Through the use of RBAC, enforced minimum
privileges for general system users can be easily achieved.
QUESTION 82:
Which of the following rules is less likely to support the concept of least privilege?
A. The number of administrative accounts should be kept to a minimum
B. Administrators should use regular accounts when performing routing operations like reading
mail
C. Permissions on tools that are likely to be used by hackers should be as restrictive as possible
D. Only data to and from critical systems and applications should be allowed through the
firewall
Answer: D
QUESTION 83:
Which level of “least privilege” enables operators the right to modify data directly in it’s
original location, in addition to data copied from the original location?
A. Access Change
B. Read/Write
C. Access Rewrite
D. Access modify
Answer: A
QUESTION 84:
This is a common security issue that is extremely hard to control in large environments. It
occurs when a user has more computer rights, permissions, and privileges that what is
required for the tasks the user needs to fulfill. What best describes this scenario?
A. Excessive Rights
B. Excessive Access
C. Excessive Permissions
D. Excessive Privileges
Answer: D
Reference: “Excessive Privileges: This is a common security issue that is extremely hard to
control in vast, complex environments. It occurs when a user has more computer rights,
permissions, and privileges than what is required for the tasks she needs to fulfill.” pg 603 Shon
Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 85:
One method to simplify the administration of access controls is to group
A. Capabilities and privileges
B. Objects and subjects
C. Programs and transactions
D. Administrators and managers
Answer: B
QUESTION 86:
Cryptography does not concern itself with:
A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Authenticity
Answer: A
QUESTION 87:
Which of the following measures would be the BEST deterrent to the theft of corporate
information from a laptop which was left in a hotel room?
A. Store all data on disks and lock them in an in-room safe
B. Remove the batteries and power supply from the laptop and store them separately from the
computer
C. Install a cable lock on the laptop when it is unattended
D. Encrypt the data on the hard drive
Answer: D
QUESTION 88:
To support legacy applications that rely on risky protocols (e.g,, plain text passwords),
which one of the following can be implemented to mitigate the risks on a corporate
network?
A. Implement strong centrally generated passwords to control use of the vulnerable applications.
B. Implement a virtual private network (VPN) with controls on workstations joining the VPN.
C. Ensure that only authorized trained users have access to workstations through physical access
control.
D. Ensure audit logging is enabled on all hosts and applications with associated frequent log
reviews.
Answer: B
It makes more sense to provide VPN client to workstations opposed to physically securing
workstations.
QUESTION 89:
Which of the following computer crime is more often associated with insiders?
A. IP spoofing
B. Password sniffing
C. Data diddling
D. Denial of Service (DOS)
Answer: C
QUESTION 90:
The technique of skimming small amounts of money from multiple transactions is called
the
A. Scavenger technique
B. Salami technique
C. Synchronous attack technique
D. Leakage technique
Answer: B
QUESTION 91:
What best describes a scenario when an employee has been shaving off pennies from
multiple accounts and depositing the funds into his own bank account?
A. Data fiddling
B. Data diddling
C. Salami techniques
D. Trojan horses
Answer: C
QUESTION 92:
What is the act of willfully changing data, using fraudulent input or removal of controls
called?
A. Data diddling
B. Data contaminating
C. Data capturing
D. Data trashing
Answer: A
Data-diddling – the modification of data -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition)
pg 417
QUESTION 93:
In the context of computer security, “scavenging” refers to searching
A. A user list to find a name.
B. Through storage to acquire information.
C. Through data for information content.
D. Through log files for trusted path information.
Answer: C
Scavenging is a form of dumpster diving performed electronically. Online scavenging searches
for useful information in the remnants of data left over after processes or tasks are completed.
This could include audit trails, logs files, memory dumps, variable settings, port mappings, and
cached data. – Ed Tittle CISSP Study Guide (sybex) pg 476
QUESTION 94:
Which security program exists if a user accessing low-level data is able to draw conclusions about high-level
information?
A. Interference
B. Inference
C. Polyinstatiation
D. Under-classification
Answer: B
Main Entry: in*fer*ence
Function: noun
Date: 1594
1 : the act or process of inferring : as a : the act of passing from one proposition, statement, or
judgment considered as true to another whose truth is believed to follow from that of the former b :
the act of passing from statistical sample data to generalizations (as of the value of population
parameters) usually with calculated degrees of certainty
2 : something that is inferred especially : a proposition arrived at by inference
3 : the premises and conclusion of a process of inferring
http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/dictionary
QUESTION 95:
Which of the following is not a form of a passive attack?
A. Scavenging
B. Data diddling
C. Shoulder surfing
D. Sniffing
Answer: B
Data diddling is an active attack opposed to a passive attack.
Reference: “Data Diddling occurs when an attacker gains access to a system and makes small,
random, or incremental changes to data rather than obviously altering file contents or damaging
or deleting entire files.” Pg 383 Tittel
QUESTION 96:
An example of an individual point of verification in a computerized application is
A. An inference check.
B. A boundary protection.
C. A sensitive transaction.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
CISSP
D. A check digit.
Answer: D
Checkdigit: A one-digit checksum.
Checksum: A computed value which depends on the contents of a block of data and which is
transmitted or stored along with the data in order to detect corruption of the data. The receiving
system recomputes the checksum based upon the received data and compares this value with the
one sent with the data. If the two values are the same, the receiver has some confidence that the
data was received correctly.
The checksum may be 8 bits (modulo 256 sum), 16, 32, or some other size. It is computed by
summing the bytes or words of the data block ignoring overflow. The checksum may be negated
so that the total of the data words plus the checksum is zero.
QUESTION 97:
Data inference violations can be reduced using
A. Polyinstantiation technique.
B. Rules based meditation.
C. Multi-level data classification.
D. Correct-state transformation.
Answer: A
“Polyinstantiation is the development of a detailed version of an object from another object using
different values in the new object. In the database information security, this term is concerned
with the same primary key for different relations at different classification levels being stored in
the same database. For example, in a relational database, the same of a military unit may be
classified Secret in the database and may have an identification number as the primary key. If
another user at a lower classification level attempts to create a confidential entry for another
military unit using the same identification number as a primary key, a rejection of this attempt
would imply to the lower level user that the same identification number existed at a higher level
of classification. To avoid this inference channel of information, the lower level user would be
issued the same identification number for their unit and the database management system would
manage this situation where the same primary key was used for different units.” Pg 352-353
Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.
“As with aggregation, the best defense against inference attacks is to maintain constant vigilance
over the permissions granted to individual users. Furthermore, intentional blurring of data may
be used to prevent the inference of sensitive information.” – Ed Tittle CISSP Study Guide
(sybex)
The other security issue is inference, which is very similar to aggregation. The inference
problem happens when a subject deduces information that is restricted from data he has access
to. This is seen when data at a lower security level indirectly portrays data at a higher level…This
problem is usually dealt with in the development of the database by implementing content and
context-dependent classification rules; this tracks the subject’s query requests and restricts
patterns that represent inference.
“Polyinstantiation is a process of interactively producing more detailed versions of objects by
populating variables with values or other variables”- Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification
Guide pg 725-727
QUESTION 98:
What is it called when a computer uses more than one CPU in parallel to execute
instructions?
A. Multiprocessing
B. Multitasking
C. Multithreading
D. Parallel running
Answer: A
QUESTION 99:
What is the main purpose of undertaking a parallel run of a new system?
A. Resolve any errors in the program and file interfaces
B. Verify that the system provides required business functionality
C. Validate the operation of the new system against its predecessor
D. Provide a backup of the old system
Answer: B
QUESTION 100:
Which of the following provide network redundancy in a local network environment?
A. Mirroring
B. Shadowing
C. Dual backbones
D. Duplexing
Answer: C
QUESTION 101:
A server farm is an example of:
A. Server clustering
B. Redundant servers
C. Multiple servers
D. Server fault tolerance
Answer: A
QUESTION 102:
In which state must a computer system operate to process input/output instructions?
A. User mode
B. Stateful inspection
C. Interprocess communication
D. Supervisor mode
Answer: D
A computer is in a supervisory state when it is executing these privileged instructions.
(privileged instructions are executed by the system administrator or by an individual who is
authorized to use those instructions.) . -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg
254-255
QUESTION 103:
What should be the size of a Trusted Computer Base?
A. Small – in order to permit it to be implemented in all critical system components without using excessive
resources.
B. Small – in order to facilitate the detailed analysis necessary to prove that it meets design requirements.
C. Large – in order to accommodate the implementation of future updates without incurring the time and
expense of
recertification.
D. Large – in order to enable it to protect the potentially large number of resources in a typical commercial
system
environment.
Answer: B
“It must be small enough to be able to be tested and verified in a complete and comprehensive
manner.” Shon Harris All-In-One CISSP Certification Guide pg. 232-233.
QUESTION 104:
Which one of the following are examples of security and controls that would be found in a
“trusted” application system?
A. Data validation and reliability
B. Correction routines and reliability
C. File integrity routines and audit trail
D. Reconciliation routines and data labels
Answer: C
I have no specific reference for this question but the major resources hammer that there needs to
be methods to check the data for correctness.
QUESTION 105:
Which of the following is an operating system security architecture that provides flexible support
for security policies?
A. OSKit
B. LOMAC
C. SE Linux
D. Flask
Answer: D
Explanation:
Flask is an operating system security architecture that provides flexible support for
security policies. The architecture was prototyped in the Fluke research operating
system. Several of the Flask interfaces and components were then ported from the Fluke
prototype to the OSKit. The Flask architecture is now being implemented in the Linux
operating system (Security-Enhanced Linux) to transfer the technology to a larger
developer and user community.
QUESTION 106:
Which of the following statements pertaining to the security kernel is incorrect?
A. It is made up of mechanisms that fall under the TCB and implements and enforces the
reference monitor concept.
B. It must provide isolation for the processes carrying out the reference monitor concept and
they must be tamperproof
C. It must be small enough to be able to be tested and verified in a complete and comprehensive
manner
D. Is an access control concept, not an actual physical component
Answer: D
QUESTION 107:
What is a PRIMARY reason for designing the security kernel to be as small as possible?
A. The operating system cannot be easily penetrated by users.
B. Changes to the kernel are not required as frequently.
C. Due to its compactness, the kernel is easier to formally verify.
D. System performance and execution are enhanced.
Answer: C
I disagree with the original answer which was B (changes to the kernel) and think it is C (Due to
its compactness). However, use your best judgment based on knowledge and experience. Below
is why I think it is C.
“There are three main requirements of the security kernel:
It must provide isolation for the processes carrying out the reference monitor concept and they
must be tamperproof.
The reference monitor must be invoked for every access attempt and must be impossible to
circumvent. Thus the reference monitor must be implemented in a complete and foolproof way.
à It must be small enough to be able to be tested and verified in a complete and comprehensive
manner.” – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 232-233
QUESTION 108:
Which of the following implements the authorized access relationship between subjects and
objects of a system?
A. Security model
B. Reference kernel
C. Security kernel
D. Information flow model
Answer: C
QUESTION 109:
The concept that all accesses must be meditated, protected from modification, and verifiable as correct is the
concept of
A. Secure model
B. Security locking
C. Security kernel
D. Secure state
Answer: C
A security kernel is defined as the hardware, firmware, and software elements of a trusted
computing base that implements the reference monitor concept. A reference monitor is a system
component that enforces access controls on an object. Therefore, the reference monitor concept
is an abstract machine that mediates all access of subjects to objects. The Security Kernel must:
Mediate all accesses
Be protected from modification
Be verified as correct.
-Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 262
QUESTION 110:
What is an error called that causes a system to be vulnerable because of the environment in
which it is installed?
A. Configuration error
B. Environmental error
C. Access validation error
D. Exceptional condition handling error
Answer: B
QUESTION 111:
Which of the following ensures that security is not breached when a system crash or other
system failure occurs?
A. trusted recovery
B. hot swappable
C. redundancy
D. secure boot
Answer: A
“Trusted Recovery
When an operating system or application crashes or freezes, it should not put the sytem in any
time of secure state.” Pg 762 Shon Harris: All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide
QUESTION 112:
What type of subsystem is an application program that operates outside the operating system and carries out
functions for a group of users, maintains some common data for all users in the group, and protects the data
from improper access by users in the group?
A. Prevented subsystem
B. Protected subsystem
C. File subsystem
D. Directory subsystem
Answer: B
QUESTION 113:
A ‘Pseudo flaw’ is which of the following?
A. An apparent loophole deliberately implanted in an operating system
B. An omission when generating Pseudo-code
C. Used for testing for bounds violations in application programming
D. A Normally generated page fault causing the system halt
Answer: A
QUESTION 114:
Which of the following yellow-book defined types of system recovery happens after a
system fails in an uncrontrolled manner in response to a TCB or media failure and the
system cannot be brought to a consistent state?
A. Recovery restart
B. System reboot
C. Emergency system restart
D. System Cold start
Answer: C
Reference: “Emergency system restart is done after a system fails in an uncontrolled manner in
response to a TCB or media failure. In such cases, TCB and user objects on nonvolatile storage
belonging to processes active at the time of TCB or media failure may be left in an inconsistent
state. The system enters maintenance mode, recovery is performed automatically, and the system
restarts with no user processes in progress after bringing up the system in a consistent state.”
QUESTION 115:
Which one of the following describes a reference monitor?
A. Access control concept that refers to an abstract machine that mediates all accesses to objects by
subjects.
B. Audit concept that refers to monitoring and recording of all accesses to
objects by subjects.
C. Identification concept that refers to the comparison of material
supplied by a user with its reference profile.
D. Network control concept that distributes the authorization of subject
accesses to objects.
Answer: A
A reference monitor is a system component that enforces access controls on an object. Therefore,
the reference monitor concept is an abstract machine that mediates all access of subjects to
objects -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 262
QUESTION 116:
What can best be described as an abstract machine which must mediate all access to
subjects to objects?
A. A security domain
B. The reference monitor
C. The security kernel
D. The security perimeter
Answer: B
Reference: pg 882 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 117:
What is the PRIMARY component of a Trusted Computer Base?
A. The computer hardware
B. The security subsystem
C. The operating system software
D. The reference monitor
Answer: D
“The security kernel is made
up of hardware, software, and firmware components that fall within the TCB and
implements and enforces the reference monitor concept. The security kernel
mediates all access and functions between subjects and objects. The security kernel
is the core of the TCB and is the most commonly used approach to building trusted
computing systems. There are three main requirements of the security kernel:
It must provide isolation for the processes carrying out the reference monitor concept,
and the processes must be tamperproof.
It must be invoked for every access attempt and must be impossible to circumvent.
Thus, the security kernel must be implemented in a complete and foolproof way.
It must be samall enough to be able to be tested and verified in a complete and
comprehensive manner.
These are the requirements of the reference monitor; therefor,they are the requirements
of the components that provide and enforce the reference monitor concept-the security
kernel.” – Shon Harris, “CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide”, 3rd Ed, p
QUESTION 118:
Which of the following is best defined as a mode of system termination that automatically
leaves system processes and components in a secure state when a failure occurs or is
detected in the system?
A. Fail proof
B. Fail soft
C. Fail safe
D. Fail resilient
Answer: C
QUESTION 119:
LOMAC uses what Access Control method to protect the integrity of processes and data?
A. Linux based EFS.
B. Low Water-Mark Mandatory Access Control.
C. Linux based NFS.
D. High Water-Mark Mandatory Access Control.
Answer: B
Explanation:
LOMAC is a security enhancement for Linux that uses Low Water-Mark Mandatory Access
Control to protect the integrity of processes and data from viruses, Trojan horses,
malicious remote users and compromised root daemons. LOMAC is implemented as a loadable
kernel module – no kernel recompilations or changes to existing applications are
required. Although not all the planned features are currently implemented, it presently
provides sufficient protection to thwart script-kiddies, and is stable enough for
everyday use.
QUESTION 120:
On Linux, LOMAC is implemented as:
A. Virtual addresses
B. Registers
C. Kernel built in functions
D. Loadable kernel module
Answer: D
Explanation:
LOMAC is a security enhancement for Linux that uses Low Water-Mark Mandatory Access
Control to protect the integrity of processes and data from viruses, Trojan horses,
malicious remote users and compromised root daemons. LOMAC is implemented as a loadable
kernel module – no kernel recompilations or changes to existing applications are
required. Although not all the planned features are currently implemented, it presently
provides sufficient protection to thwart script-kiddies, and is stable enough for
everyday use.
“Security Kernel – The hardware, firmware, and software elements of a trusted computing base
(TCB) that implements the reference monitor concept. It must mediate all accesses between
subjects and objects, be protected from modification, and be verifiable as correct.” – Shon Harris
All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 355
QUESTION 121:
LOMAC is a security enhancement for what operating system?
A. Linux
B. Netware
C. Solaris
Answer: A
Explanation:
LOMAC is a security enhancement for Linux that uses Low Water-Mark Mandatory Access
Control to protect the integrity of processes and data from viruses, Trojan horses,
malicious remote users and compromised root daemons. LOMAC is implemented as a loadable
kernel module – no kernel recompilations or changes to existing applications are
required. Although not all the planned features are currently implemented, it presently
provides sufficient protection to thwart script-kiddies, and is stable enough for
everyday use.
QUESTION 122:
What was introduced for circumventing difficulties in classic approaches to computer security by
limiting damages produces by malicious programs?
A. Integrity-preserving
B. Ref Mon
C. Integrity-monitoring
D. Non-Interference
Answer: B
Explanation:
“reference monitor … mediates all access subjects have to objects … protect the objects
from unauthorized access and destructive modification” , Ibid p 273
Reference monitor is part of the TCB concept
Not D: “noninterference … is implemented to ensure that any actions that take place at a
higher security level do not affect … actions that take place at a lower level”, Harris, 3rd
Ed, p 290.
It is part of the information flow model.
QUESTION 123:
A feature deliberately implemented in an operating system as a trap for intruders is called a:
A. Trap door
B. Trojan horse
C. Pseudo flaw
D. Logic bomb
Answer: C
“An apparent loophole deliberately implanted in an operating system program as a trap for
intruders.” As defined by the Aqua Book NCSC-TG-004 a pseudo-flaw is an apparent loophole
deliberately implanted in an operating system program as a trap for intruders. Answer from
http://www.cccure.org
QUESTION 124:
Fault tolerance countermeasures are designed to combat threats to
A. an uninterruptible power supply
B. backup and retention capability
C. design reliability
D. data integrity
Answer: C
QUESTION 125:
A ‘Psuedo flaw’ is which of the following?
A. An apparent loophole deliberately implanted in an operating system program as a trap for
intruders
B. An omission when generating Psuedo-code
C. Used for testing for bounds violations in application programming
D. A normally generated page fault causing the system to halt
Answer: A
QUESTION 126:
What Distributed Computing Environment (DCE) component provides a mechanism to
ensure that services are made available only to properly designated parties?
A. Directory Service
B. Remote Procedure Call Service
C. Distributed File Service
D. Authentication and Control Service
Answer: A
A directory service has a hierarchical database of users, computers, printers, resources, and
attributes of each. The directory is mainly used for lookup operations, which enable users to
track down resources and other users…The administrator can then develop access control,
security, and auditing policies that dictate who can access these objects, how the objects can be
accessed, and audit each of these actions. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg
436-437
QUESTION 127:
What can be accomplished by storing on each subject a list of rights the subject has for
every object?
A. Object
B. Capabilities
C. Key ring
D. Rights
Answer: B
Explanation:
Capabilities are accomplished by storing on each subject a list of rights the subject
has for every object. This effectively gives each user a key ring. To remove access to
a particular object, every user (subject) that has access to it must be “touched”. A
touch is an examination of a user’s rights to that object and potentially removal of
rights. This brings back the problem of sweeping changes in access rights.
QUESTION 128:
In the Information Flow Model, what relates two versions of the same object?
A. Flow
B. State
C. Transformation
D. Successive points
Answer: A
Explanation:
A flow is a type of dependency that relates two versions of the same object, and thus
the transformation of one state of that object into another, at successive points in
time.
QUESTION 129:
What is a security requirement that is unique to Compartmented Mode Workstations
(CMW)?
A. Sensitivity Labels
B. Object Labels
C. Information Labels
D. Reference Monitors
Answer: C
QUESTION 130:
The Common Criteria (CC) represents requirements for IT security of a product or system under which
distinct categories?
A. Functional and assurance
B. Protocol Profile (PP) and Security Target (ST)
C. Targets of Evaluation (TOE) and Protection Profile (PP)
D. Integrity and control
Answer: A
“Like other evaluation criteria before it, Common Criteria works to answer two basic and general
questions about products being evaluated: what does it do (functionality), and how sure are you
of that (assurance)?” pg 232 Shon Harris CISSP All-In-One Certification Exam Guide
QUESTION 131:
What are the assurance designators used in the Common Criteria (CC)?
A. EAL 1, EAL 2, EAL 3, EAL 4, EAL 5, EAL 6, and EAL 7
B. A1, B1, B2, B3, C2, C1, and D
C. E0, E1, E2, E3, E4, E5, and E6
D. AD0, AD1, AD2, AD3, AD4, AD5, and AD6
Answer: A
Original Answer was C. This is wrong in my view as the original answer confused ITSEC with the CC per the
following
The Common criteria terminology for the degree of examination of the product to be tested is the Evaluation
Assurance level (EAL). EALs range from EA1 (functional testing to EA7 (detailed testing and formal design
verification). -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 266-267
Note that Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide uses EAL (not just EA).
EALs are combinations of assurance components. They also can be conveniently compared to
TSCEC and ITSEC. Like these security evaluation criteria, EALs are scaled with from EAL1
through EAL7. Other EALs exist, but EAL 7 is the highest with international recognition. –
Roberta Bragg Cissp Certification Training Guide (que) pg 368
ITSEC separately evaluates functionality and assurance, and it includes 10 functionality classes
(f), eight assurance levels (q), seven levels of correctness (e), and eight basic security functions
in its criteria. ). -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 266
QUESTION 132:
Which of the following uses protection profiles and security targets?
A. ITSEC
B. TCSEC
C. CTCPEC
D. International Standard 15408
Answer: D
“For historical and continuity purposes, ISO has accepted the continued use of the term
“Common Criteria” (CC) within this document, while recognizing the official ISO name for the
new IS 15408 is “Evaluation Criteria for Information Technology Security.” Pg. 552 Krutz: The
CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
“The Common Criteria define a Protection Profile (PP), which is an implementation-independent
specification of the security requirements and protections of a product that could be built. The
Common Criteria terminology for the degree of examination of the product to be tested is the
Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL). EALs range from EA1 (functional testing) to EA7 (detailed
testing and formal design verification). The Common Criteria TOE refers to the product to be
tested. A Security Target (ST) is a listing of the security claims for a particular IT security
product. Also, the Common Criteria describe an intermediate grouping of security requirement
components as a package.” Pg. 266-267 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 133:
According to Common Criteria, what can be described as an intermediate combination of
security requirement components?
A. Protection profile (PP)
B. Security target (ST)
C. Package
D. The Target of Evaluation (TOE)
Answer: C
“The Common Criteria define a Protection Profile (PP), which is an implementation-independent
specification of the security requirements and protections of a product that should be built. The
Common Criteria terminology for the degree of examination of the product to be tested is the
Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL.) EALs range from EA1 (functional testing() to EA7 (detailed
testing and formal design verification). The Common Criteria TOE refers to the product to be
tested. A Security Target (ST) is a listing of the security claims for a particular IT security
product. Also, the Common Criteria describe an intermedicate grouping of security requirement
components as a package.”
Pg. 266- 267 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 134:
The Common Criteria construct which allows prospective consumers or developers to
create standardized sets of security requirements to meet there needs is
A. a Protection Profile (PP).
B. a Security Target (ST).
C. an evaluation Assurance Level (EAL).
D. a Security Functionality Component Catalog (SFCC).
Answer: A
Protection Profiles: The Common Criteria uses protection profiles to evaluate products. The
protection profile contains the set of security requirements, their meaning and reasoning, and the
corresponding EAL rating. The profile describes the environmental assumptions, the objectives,
and functional and assurance level expectations. Each relevant threat is listed along with how it
is to be controlled by specific objectives. It also justifies the assurance level and requirements for
the strength of each protection mechanism. The protection profile provides a means for the
consumer, or others, to identify specific security needs ;p this is the security problems
to be conquered.
EAL: An evaluation is carried out on a product and is assigned an evaluation assurance level
(EAL) The thoroughness and stringent testing increases in detailed-oriented tasks as the levels
increase. The Common Criteria has seven aassurance levels. The ranges go from EAL1, where
the functionality testing takes place, to EAL7,where thorough testing is performed and the
system is verified.
All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide by Shon Harris pg. 262
Note: “The Common Criteria defines a Protection Profile (PP), which is an
implementation-independent specification of the security requirements and protections of a
product that could be built. The Common Criteria terminology for the degree of examination of
the product to be tested is the Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL). EALs range from EA1
(functional testing) to EA7 (detailed testing and formal design verification). The Common
Criteria TOE [target of evaluation] refers to the product to be tested. A Security Target (ST) is a
listing of the security claims for a particular IT security product.” -Ronald Krutz The CISSP
PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 266-267
QUESTION 135:
The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) was written to address
which of the following that the Orange Book did not address?
A. integrity and confidentiality
B. confidentiality and availability
C. integrity and availability
D. none of the above
Answer: C
“ITSEC TCSEC (Orange Book)
E0 D
F1+E1 C1
F2+E2 C2
F3+E3 B1
F4+E4 B2
F5+E5 B3
F5+E6 A1
F6=Systems that provide high integrity
F7=Systems that provide high availability
F8=Systems that provide data integrity during communication
F9=Systems that provide high confidentiality
F10=Networks with high demands on confidentiality and integrity”
Pg. 230 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 136:
Which of the following was developed by the National Computer Security Center
(NCSC)?
A. TCSEC
B. ITSEC
C. DITSCAP
D. NIACAP
Answer: A
Reference: pg 129 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP Exam
QUESTION 137:
The Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria (TBSEC) provides
A. a basis for assessing the effectiveness of security controls built into automatic data-processing
system products
B. a system analysis and penetration technique where specifications and document for the system
are analyzed.
C. a formal static transition model of computer security policy that describes a set of access
control rules.
D. a means of restricting access to objects based on the identity of subjects and groups to which
they belong.
Answer: A
TBSEC provides guidelines to be used with evaluating a security product. The TBSEC
guidelines address basic security functionality and allow evaluators to measure and rate the
functionality of a system and how trustworthy it is. Functionality and assurance are combined
and not separated, as in criteria developed later. TCSEC guidelines can be used for evaluating
vendor products or by vendors to design necessary functionality into new products. CISSP Study
Guide by Tittel pg. 413.
QUESTION 138:
Which Orange Book evaluation level is described as “Verified Design”?
A. A1
B. B3
C. B2
D. B1
Answer: A
QUESTION 139:
Which of the following classes is defined in the TCSEC (Orange Book) as mandatory
protection?
A. B
B. A
C. C
D. D
Answer: A
QUESTION 140:
Which Orange Book security rating requires that formal techniques are used to prove the
equivalence between the TCB specifications and the security policy model?
A. B2
B. B3
C. A1
D. A2
Answer: C
Reference: Pg 226 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 141:
According to the Orange Book, which security level is the first to require trusted recovery?
A. A1
B. B2
C. B3
D. B1
Answer: B
“Trusted recovery is required only for B3 and A1 level systems.” Pg 305 Krutz: CISSP Prep
Guide: Gold Edition.
QUESTION 142:
According to the Orange Book, which security level is the first to require a system to
protect against covert timing channels?
A. A1
B. B3
C. B2
D. B1
Answer: B
Explanation: A B2 system mustmeet all the requirement of a B1 system and support
hierarchical devices labels, trusted path communications between the user and the
system, and covert channel analysis.
Exam Cram 2pg 103 and ALL-IN-ONE CISSP Third Edition by Shon Harris pg 304.
The key to this question is knowingthe difference between various system ratings and
keeping in mind a higher ratedsystem have all of the same security implementations as a
lower rated system. In this case both B3 and A1 systems supportcovert channelanalysis,
but it isimplementedfor B2 systems.
QUESTION 143:
Which of the following is not an Orange Book-defined operational assurance requirement?
A. System architecture
B. Trusted facility management
C. Configuration management
D. Covert channel analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION 144:
Which of the following is least likely to be found in the Orange Book?
A. Security policy
B. Documentation
C. Accountability
D. Networks and network components
Answer: D
QUESTION 145:
According to the Orange Book, which security level is the first to require a system to
support separate operator and system administrator rules?
A. A1
B. B1
C. B2
D. B3
Answer: C
QUESTION 146:
Which of the following is not an Orange book-defined life cycle assurance requirement?
A. Security testing
B. Design specification and testing
C. Trusted distribution
D. System integrity
Answer: D
Systems Integrity is a part of operational assurance opposed to life cycle assurance.
“The operational assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:
System Architecture
System integrity
Covert channel analysis
Trusted facility management
Trusted recovery
The life cycle assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:
Security testing
Design specification and testing
Configuration Management
Trusted Distribution”
Pg. 301 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.
QUESTION 147:
At what Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) or Information Technology Security
Evaluation
Criteria (ITSEC) security level are database elements FIRST required to have security labels?
A. A1/E6
B. B1/E3
C. B2/E4
D. C2/E2
Answer: B
“B1: Labeled Security
Each data object must contain a classification label and each subject must have a clearance label.
When a subject attempts to access an object, the system must compare the subject and object’s
security labels to ensure the requested actions are acceptable. Data leaving the system must also
contain an accurate security label. The security policy is based on an informal statement and the
design specifications are reviewed and verified. It is intended for environments that require
systems to handle classified data.”
” pg. 224-226 Shon Harris: All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide
QUESTION 148:
Which of the following statements pertaining to the Trusted Computer System Evaluation
Criteria (TCSEC) is incorrect?
A. With TCSEC, functionality and assurance are evaluated separately.
B. TCSEC provides a means to evaluate the trustworthiness of an information system
C. The Orange Book does not cover networks and communications
D. Database management systems are not covered by the TCSEC
Answer: A
QUESTION 149:
Which of the following is the lowest TCSEC class wherein the systems must support
separate operator and system administrator roles?
A. B2
B. B1
C. A1
D. A2
Answer: A
Reference: pg 129 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP Exam
QUESTION 150:
Which TCSEC (Orange Book) level requires the system to clearly identify functions of
security administrator to perform security-related functions?
A. C2
B. B1
C. B2
D. B3
Answer: D
B1: Labeled Security
Each data object must contain a classification label and each subject must have a clearance label.
When a subject attempts to access an object, the system must compare the subject and object’s
security labels to ensure the requested actions are acceptable. Data leaving the system must also
contain an accurate security label. The security policy is based on an informal statement and the
design specifications are reviewed and verified. It is intended for environments that require
systems to handle classified data.
B2: Structured Protection
The security policy is clearly defined and documented, and the system design and
implementation are subjected to more thorough review and testing procedures. This class
requires more stringent authentication mechanisms and well-defined interfaces among layers.
Subjects and devices require labels, and the system must not allow covert channels. A trusted
path for logon and authentication processes must be in place, which means there are no
trapdoors. A trusted path means that the subject is communicating directly with the application
or operating system. There is no way to circumvent or compromise this communication channel.
There is a separation of operator and administration functions within the system to provide more
trusted and protected operational functionality. Distinct address spaces must be provided to
isolate processes, and a covert channel analysis is conducted. This class adds assurance by
adding requirements to the design of the system.
The environment that would require B2 systems could process sensitive data that require a
higher degree of security. This environment would require systems that are relatively resistant to
penetration and compromise.
(A trusted path means that the user can be sure that he is talking to a genuine copy of the
operating system.)
B3: Security Domains
In this class, more granularity is provided in each protection mechanism, and the programming
code that is not necessary to support the security policy is exclude. The design and
implementation should not provide too much complexity because as the complexity of a system
increases, the ability of the individual who need to test, maintain, and configure it reduces; thus,
the overall security can be threatened. The reference monitor components must be small enough
to test properly and be tamperproof. The security administrator role is clearly defined, and the
system must be able to recover from failures without it security level being compromised. When
the system starts up and loads it operating system and components, it must be done in an initial
secure state to ensure that any weakness of the system cannot be taken advantage of in this slice
of time. ” pg. 226 Shon Harris: All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide
QUESTION 151:
Which of the following statements pertaining to the trusted computing base (TCB) is false?
A. It addresses the level of security a system provides
B. It originates from the Orange Book
C. It includes hardware, firmware, and software
D. A higher TCB rating will require that details of their testing procedures and documentation
be reviewed with more granularity
Answer: A
QUESTION 152:
Which of the following is not an Orange book-defined operational assurance requirement?
A. System architecture
B. Trusted facility management
C. Configuration management
D. Covert channel analysis
Answer: C
Configuration management is a part of life cycle assurance opposed to operational assurance.
“The operational assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:
System Architecture
System integrity
Covert channel analysis
Trusted facility management
Trusted recovery
The life cycle assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:
Security testing
Design specification and testing
Configuration Management
Trusted Distribution”
Pg. 301 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.
QUESTION 153:
Which of the following focuses on the basic features and architecture of a system?
A. operational assurance
B. life cycle assurance
C. covert channel assurance
D. level A1
Answer: A
“The operational assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:
System Architecture
System integrity
Covert channel analysis
Trusted facility management
Trusted recovery”
Pg. 301 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 154:
Which level(s) must protect against both covert storage and covert timing channels?
A. B3 and A1
B. B2, B3 and A1
C. A1
D. B1, B2, B3 and A1
Answer: A
Reference: pg 302 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 155:
According to the Orange Book, trusted facility management is not required for which of
the following security levels?
A. B1
B. B2
C. B3
D. A1
Answer: A
B1 does not provide trusted facility management, the next highest level that does is B2.
“Trusted facility management is defined as the assignment of a specific individual to administer
the security-related functions of a system. Although trusted facility management is an assurance
requirement only for highly secure systems (B2, B3, and A1), many systems evaluated at lower
security levels CK structured to try to meet this requirement.” Pg. 302 Krutz: The CISSP Prep
Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 156:
Which factor is critical in all systems to protect data integrity?
A. Data classification
B. Information ownership
C. Change control
D. System design
Answer: A
A Integrity is dependent on confidentiality, which relies on data classification. Also Biba
integrity model relies on data classification.
“There are numerous countermeasures to ensure confidentiality against possible threats. These
include the use of encryption, network traffic padding, strict access control, rigorous
authentication procedures, data classification, and extensive personnel training.
Confidentiality and integrity are dependent upon each other. Without object integrity,
confidentiality cannon be maintained. Other concepts, conditions, and aspects of confidentiality
include sensitivity, discretion, criticality, concealment, secrecy, privacy, seclusion, and
isolation.” Pg 145 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide.
“Biba Integrity Model
Integrity is usually characterized by the three following goals:
1.) The data is protected from modification by unauthorized users.
2.) The data is protected from unauthorized modification by authorized users.
3) The data is internally and externally consistent; the data held in a database must
balance internally and correspond to the external, real world situation.”
Pg. 277 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.
QUESTION 157:
Which of the following is not a common integrity goal?
A. Prevent unauthorized users from making modifications
B. Maintain internal and external consistency
C. Prevent authorized users from making improper modifications
D. Prevent paths that could lead to inappropriate disclosure

Answer: D
QUESTION 158:
Which security model introduces access to objects only through programs?
A. The Biba model
B. The Bell-LaPadula model
C. The Clark-Wilson model
D. The information flow model
Answer: C
“The Clark-Wilson model is also an integrity-protecting model. The Clark-Wilson model was
developed after Biba and approaches integrity protection from a different perspective. Rather
than employing a lattice structure, it uses a three-part relationship of subject/program/object
known as a triple. Subjects do not have direct access to objects. Objects can be access only
through programs.” Pg 347 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide
QUESTION 159:
To ensure that integrity is attainted through the Clark and Wilson model, certain rules are
needed.These rules are:
A. Processing rules and enforcement rules.
B. Integrity-bouncing rules.
C. Certification rules and enforcement rules.
D. Certification rules and general rules.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure that integrity is attained and preserved, Clark and Wilson assert, certain
integrity-monitoring and integrity-preserving rules are needed. Integrity-monitoring
rules are called certification rules, and integrity-preserving rules are called
enforcement rules.
QUESTION 160:
What can be defined as a formal security model for the integrity of subjects and objects in
a system?
A. Biba
B. Bell LaPadulaLattice
C. Lattice
D. Info Flow
Answer: A
The Handbook of Information System Management, 1999 Edition, ISBN: 0849399742 presents
the following definition:
In studying the two properties of the Bell-LaPadula model, Biba discovered a plausible
notion of integrity, which he defined as prevention of unauthorized modification. The
resulting Biba integrity model states that maintenance of integrity requires that data
not flow from a receptacle of given integrity to a receptacle of higher integrity. For
example, if a process can write above its security level, trustworthy data could be
contaminated by the addition of less trustworthy data. SANS glossary at
http://www.sans.org/newlook/resources/glossary.htm define it as:
Formal security model for the integrity of subjects and objects in a system.
QUESTION 161:
The Clark Wilson model has its emphasis on:
A. Security
B. Integrity
C. Accountability
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B
Explanation:
This model attempts to capture security requirements of commercial applications.
‘Military’ and ‘Commercial’ are shorthand for different ways of using computers. This
model has emphasis on integrity:
Internal consistency: properties of the internal state of a system
External consistency: relation of the internal state of a system to the outside world
QUESTION 162:
What does * (star) integrity axiom mean in the Biba model?
A. No read up
B. No write down
C. No read down
D. No write up
Answer: D
“Biba has two integrity axioms:
1. Simple Integrity Axiom The Simple Integrity Axiom (SI Axiom) state that a subject at a
specific classification level cannot read data with a lower classification level. This is often
shortened to “no read down.”
1. Integrity Axiom The * (star) Integrity Axiom (* Axiom) states that a subject at a specific
classification level cannot write data to a higher classification level. This is often shortened to
“no write up.”” Pg 347 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide
QUESTION 163:
Which access control model states that for integrity to be maintained data must not flow from a receptacle of
given integrity to a receptacle of higher integrity?
A. Lattice Model
B. Bell-LaPadula Model
C. Biba Model
D. Take-Grant Model
Answer: C
If implemented and enforced properly, the Biba model prevents data from any integrity level
from flowing to a higher integrity level. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg
QUESTION 164:
Which one of the following is a KEY responsibility for the “Custodian of Data”?
A. Data content and backup
B. Integrity and security of data
C. Authentication of user access
D. Classification of data elements
Answer: B
Custodian – Preserves the information’s CIA (chart) -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold
edition) pg 15
QUESTION 165:
Which one of the following is true about information that is designated with the highest of
confidentiality in a private sector organization?
A. It is limited to named individuals and creates and audit trail.
B. It is restricted to those in the department of origin for the information.
C. It is available to anyone in the organization whose work relates to the subject and requires
authorization for each access.
D. It is classified only by the information security officer and restricted to those who have made
formal requests for access.
Answer: C
QUESTION 166:
Related to information security, confidentiality is the opposite of which of the following?
A. closure
B. disclosure
C. disposal
D. disaster
Answer: B
QUESTION 167:
What is the main concern of the Bell-LaPadula security model?
A. Accountability
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Availability
Answer: C
“An important thing to note is that the Bell-LaPadula model was developed to make sure secrets
stay secret; thus, it provides and addresses confidentially only. This model does not address
integrity of the data the system maintains – only who can and cannot access the data.” Pg 214
Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 168:
Which of the following are the limitations of the Bell-LaPadula model?
A. No policies for changing access data control.
B. All of the choices.
C. Contains covert channels.
D. Static in nature.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Limitations of the BLP model:
Have no policies for changing access data control
Intended for systems with static security levels
Contains covert channels: a low subject can detect the existence of a high object when
it is denied access. Sometimes it is enough to hide the content of an abject; also
their existence may have to be hidden.
Restricted to confidentiality
QUESTION 169:
Which of the following is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access
control?
A. Clarke Wilson
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Chinese Wall
D. Lattice
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bell-LaPadula is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access
control. Access permissions are defined through an Access Control matrix and through a
partial ordering of security levels. Security policies prevent information flowing
downwards from a high security level to a low security level. BLP only considers the
information flow that occurs when a subject observes or alters an object.
QUESTION 170:
With the BLP model, access permissions are defined through:
A. Filter rules
B. Security labels
C. Access Control matrix
D. Profiles
Answer: C
Explanation:
Bell-LaPadula is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access
control. Access permissions are defined through an Access Control matrix and through a
partial ordering of security levels. Security policies prevent information flowing
downwards from a high security level to a low security level. BLP only considers the
information flow that occurs when a subject observes or alters an object.
QUESTION 171:
With the BLP model, security policies prevent information flowing downwards from a:
A. Low security level
B. High security level
C. Medium security level
D. Neutral security level
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bell-LaPadula is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access
control. Access permissions are defined through an Access Control matrix and through a
partial ordering of security levels. Security policies prevent information flowing
downwards from a high security level to a low security level. BLP only considers the
information flow that occurs when a subject observes or alters an object.
QUESTION 172:
When will BLP consider the information flow that occurs?
A. When a subject alters on object.
B. When a subject accesses an object.
C. When a subject observer an object.
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Bell-LaPadula is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access
control. Access permissions are defined through an Access Control matrix and through a
partial ordering of security levels. Security policies prevent information flowing
downwards from a high security level to a low security level. BLP only considers the
information flow that occurs when a subject observes or alters an object.
QUESTION 173:
In the Bell-LaPadula model, the Star-property is also called:
A. The simple security property
B. The confidentiality property
C. The confinement property
D. The tranquility property
Answer: C
QUESTION 174:
The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed MAINLY to deal with:
A. Affinity
B. None of the choices.
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: D
Explanation:
We think this is D:
“Identity-Based Access Control”
“…grant or deny access based on the identity of the subject. …user identity or group
membership.” Harris, 3rd Ed, p 163. Group membership would be part of a user profile.
Rule based based can be ID or “a set of complex rules that must be met. … Rule-based
access control is not necessarily identity based.” Harris, 3rd Ed, p 167. So item “C” is
out.
“A” and “B” are not access control methods. I would note that in Harris, there is no
reference to “ID based access control”. “Role-based access control would be the VERY
best answer to the question – role information would be included as part of the users
profile.
QUESTION 175:
With the Lattice Based Access Control model, a security class is also called a:
A. Control factor
B. Security label
C. Mandatory number
D. Serial ID
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with information
flow in computer systems. Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to
some extent it also applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around
1970 and was driven mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems
is concerned with flow from one security class (also called security label) to another.
These controls are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an
object can be a directory or file.
QUESTION 176:
Under the Lattice Based Access Control model, a container of information is a(n):
A. Object
B. Model
C. Label
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with information
flow in computer systems. Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to
some extent it also applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around
1970 and was driven mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems
is concerned with flow from one security class (also called security label) to another.
These controls are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an
object can be a directory or file.
QUESTION 177:
What Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with information flow in
computer systems?
A. Lattice Based
B. Integrity Based
C. Flow Based
D. Area Based
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with information
flow in computer systems. Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to
some extent it also applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around
1970 and was driven mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems
is concerned with flow from one security class (also called security label) to another.
These controls are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an
object can be a directory or file.
QUESTION 178:
The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with ___________ in
computer systems.
A. Access control
B. Information flow
C. Message routes
D. Encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to some extent it also
applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around 1970 and was driven
mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems is concerned with
flow from one security class (also called security label) to another. These controls
are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an object can be a
directory or file.
QUESTION 179:
In the Lattice Based Access Control model, controls are applied to:
A. Scripts
B. Objects
C. Models
D. Factors
Answer: B
Explanation:
Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to some extent it also
applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around 1970 and was driven
mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems is concerned with
flow from one security class (also called security label) to another. These controls
are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an object can be a
directory or file.
QUESTION 180:
Access control techniques do not include:
A. Rule-Based Access Controls
B. Role-Based Access Controls
C. Mandatory Access Controls
D. Random Number Based Access Control
Answer: D
QUESTION 181:
An access control policy for a bank teller is an example of the implementation of which of
the following?
A. rule-based policy
B. identity-based policy
C. user-based policy
D. role-based policy
Answer: D
QUESTION 182:
Access control techniques do not include which of the following choices?
A. Relevant Access Controls
B. Discretionary Access Controls
C. Mandatory Access Controls
D. Lattice Based Access Controls
Answer: A
“Mandatory Access Control. The authorization of a subject’s access to an object depends upon
labels, which indicate the subject’s clearance, and the classification or sensitivity of the object.”
“Rule-based access control is a type of mandatory access control because rules determine this
access, rather than the identity of the subjects and objects alone.”
“Discretionary Access Control.The subject has authority, within certain limitations, to specify
what objects are accessible.”
“When a user with certain limitations has the right to alter the access control to certain objects,
this is termed as user-directed discretionary access control.”
“An identity-based access control is a type of a discretionary access control based on an
individual’s identity.”
“In some instances, a hybrid approach is used, which combines the features of user-based and
identity-based discretionary access control.”
“Non-discretionary Access Control. A Central authority determines what subjects can have
access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy.”
“The access controls might be based on the individuals role in the organization (role-based) or
the subject’s responsibilities and duties (task-based).”
“[Lattice-based] In this type of control, a lattice model is applied.
“Access control can be characterized as context-dependent or content dependent.”
Pg. 45-46 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 183:
What is called a type of access control where a central authority determines what subjects
can have access to certain objects, based on the organizational security policy?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Non-discretionary Access Control
D. Rule-based access control
Answer: C
Non-Discretionary Access Control. A central authority determines what subjects can have access
to certain objects based on organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on
the individual’s role in the organization (role-based) or the subject’s responsibilities and duties
(task-based).
Pg. 33 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide.
QUESTION 184:
In non-discretionary access control, a central authority determines what subjects can have
access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy. The access controls
may be based on:
A. the society’s role in the organization
B. the individual’s role in the organization
C. the group-dynamics as they relate to the individual’s role in the organization
D. the group-dynamics as they relate to the master-slave role in the organization
Answer: B
Non-Discretionary Access Control. A central authority determines what subjects can have access
to certain objects based on organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on
the individual’s role in the organization (role-based) or the subject’s responsibilities and duties
(task-based).
Pg. 33 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide.
QUESTION 185:
This is a common security issue that is extremely hard to control in large environments. It
occurs when a user has more computer rights, permissions, and privileges than what is
required for the tasks the user needs to fulfill. What best describes this scenario?
A. Excessive Rights
B. Excessive Access
C. Excessive Permissions
D. Excessive Privileges
Answer: D
QUESTION 186:
The default level of security established for access controls should be
A. All access
B. Update access
C. Read access
D. No access
Answer: D
“Need to Know and the Principle of Least Privilege are two standard axioms of high-security
environments. A user must have a need-to-know to gain access to data or resources. Even if that
ser has an equal or greater security classification than the requested information, if they do not
have a need-to-know, they are denied access. A need-to-know is the requirement to have access
to, knowledge about, or possession of data or a resource to perform specific work tasks. The
principle of least privilege is the notion that users should be granted the least amount of access to
the secure environment as possible for them to be able to complete their work tasks.” Pg 399
Tittel: CISSP Study Guide
QUESTION 187:
Access Control techniques do not include which of the following choices?
A. Relevant Access Controls
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Control
D. Lattice Based Access Controls
Answer: A
QUESTION 188:
Which of the following is a type of mandatory access control?
A. Rule-based access control
B. Role-based access control
C. User-directed access control
D. Lattice-based access control
Answer: A
Reference: pg 46 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 189:
A central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on
the organizational security policy is called:
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Non-Discretionary Access Control
D. Rule-based Access Control
Answer: C
Reference: pg 46 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 190:
What can be defined as a table of subjects and objects indicating what actions individual
subjects can take upon individual objects?
A. A capacity table
B. An access control list
C. An access control matrix
D. A capability table
Answer: C
QUESTION 191:
What access control methodology facilitates frequent changes to data permissions?
A. Rule-based
B. List-based
C. Role-based
D. Ticket-based
Answer: A
RBAC – This type of model provides access to resources based on the role the users holds within
the company or the tasks that user has been assigned. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP
Certification Guide pg 937
Rule-based access control is a type of mandatory access control because rules determine this
access (such as the correspondence of clearances labels to classification labels), rather than the
identity of the subjects and objects alone. . -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition)
pg 45-46
QUESTION 192:
Which of the following is a means of restricting access to objects based on the identity of the subject to which
they belong?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Group access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. User access control
Answer: C
The question does not ask about the identity of the accessing subject, the question refers
to the subject to which the object belongs (ie the owner).
The owner setting the access rights is the definition of DAC.
“DAC systems grant or deny access based on the identity of the subject. ….” Harris, 3rd
Ed, p 163
QUESTION 193:
What is the method of coordinating access to resources based on the listening of permitted
IP addresses?
A. MAC
B. ACL
C. DAC
D. None of the choices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The definition of ACL: A method of coordinating access to resources based on the
listing of permitted (or denied) users, network addresses or groups for each resource.
QUESTION 194:
What control is based on a specific profile for each user?
A. Lattice based access control.
B. Directory based access control.
C. Rule based access control.
D. ID based access control.
Answer: C
Explanation:
With this model, information can be easily changed for only one user but this scheme
may become a burden in a very large environment. A rule-based access control unit will
intercept every request to the server and compare the source specific access conditions
with the rights of the user in order to make an access decision. A good example could
be a firewall. Here a set of rules defined by the network administrator is recorded in
a file. Every time a connection is attempted (incoming or outgoing), the firewall
software checks the rules file to see if the connection is allowed. If it is not, the
firewall closes the connection.
QUESTION 195:
In a very large environment, which of the following is an administrative burden?
A. Rule based access control.
B. Directory based access control.
C. Lattice based access control
D. ID bases access control
Answer: D
QUESTION 196:
Which of the following is a feature of the Rule based access control?
A. The use of profile.
B. The use of information flow label.
C. The use of data flow diagram.
D. The use of token.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rule based access control is based on a specific profile for each user. Information can
be easily changed for only one user but this scheme may become a burden in a very large
environment. A rule-based access control unit will intercept every request to the
server and compare the source specific access conditions with the rights of the user in
order to make an access decision. A good example could be a firewall. Here a set of
rules defined by the network administrator is recorded in a file. Every time a
connection is attempted (incoming or outgoing), the firewall software checks the rules
file to see if the connection is allowed. If it is not, the firewall closes the
connection.
QUESTION 197:
What is an access control model?
A. A formal description of access control ID specification.
B. A formal description of security policy.
C. A formal description of a sensibility label.
D. None of the choices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
What is an access control model? It is a formal description of a security policy. What
is a security policy? A security policy captures the security requirements of an
enterprise or describes the steps that have to be taken to achieve security. Security
models are used in security evaluation, sometimes as proofs of security.
QUESTION 198:
Which of the following is true about MAC?
A. It is more flexible than DAC.
B. It is more secure than DAC.
C. It is less secure than DAC.
D. It is more scalable than DAC.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mandatory controls are access controls that are based on a policy that the user, and
more importantly the processes running with that user’s privileges, is not allowed to
violate. An example of this is “Top Secret” data is configured so that regardless of
what the user does, the data cannot be transmitted to someone who does not have “Top
Secret” status. Thus no “trojan horse” program could ever do what the user is not
allowed to do anyway. The restrictions of mandatory controls are (at least in normal
mode) also applied to the user who in a discretionary system would be “root”, or the
superuser.
QUESTION 199:
Which of the following is true regarding a secure access model?
A. Secure information cannot flow to a more secure user.
B. Secure information cannot flow to a less secure user.
C. Secure information can flow to a less secure user.
D. None of the choices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Access restrictions such as access control lists and capabilities sometimes are not
enough. In some cases, information needs to be tightened further, sometimes by an
authority higher than the owner of the information. For example, the owner of a
top-secret document in a government office might deem the information available to many
users, but his manager might know the information should be restricted further than
that. In this case, the flow of information needs to be controlled — secure
information cannot flow to a less secure user.
QUESTION 200:
In the Information Flow Model, what acts as a type of dependency?
A. State
B. Successive points
C. Transformation
D. Flow
Answer: D
Explanation:
A flow is a type of dependency that relates two versions of the same object, and thus
the transformation of one state of that object into another, at successive points in
time.
QUESTION 201:
A firewall can be classified as a:
A. Directory based access control.
B. Rule based access control.
C. Lattice based access control.
D. ID based access control.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Rule based access control is based on a specific profile for each user. Information can
be easily changed for only one user but this scheme may become a burden in a very large
environment. A rule-based access control unit will intercept every request to the
server and compare the source specific access conditions with the rights of the user in
order to make an access decision. A good example could be a firewall. Here a set of
rules defined by the network administrator is recorded in a file. Every time a
connection is attempted (incoming or outgoing), the firewall software checks the rules
file to see if the connection is allowed. If it is not, the firewall closes the
connection.
QUESTION 202:
Which of the following are the two most well known access control models?
A. Lattice and Biba
B. Bell LaPadula and Biba
C. Bell LaPadula and Chinese war
D. Bell LaPadula and Info Flow
Answer: B
Explanation:
The two most well known models are Bell&LaPadula [1973] and Biba[1977]. Both were
designed in and for military environments.
QUESTION 203:
What security model implies a central authority that determines what subjects can have
access to what objects?
A. Centralized access control
B. Discretionary access control
C. Mandatory access control
D. Non-discretionary access control
Answer: D
A role-based access control (RBAC) model, also called
nondiscretionary access control, uses a centrally administrated set of controls to
determine how subjects and objects interact. – Shon Harris, “CISSP All-in-One Exam
Guide”, 3rd Ed, p 165.
QUESTION 204:
Which of the following is best known for capturing security requirements of commercial
applications?
A. Lattice
B. Biba
C. Bell LaPadula
D. Clark and Wilson
Answer: D
Explanation:
This model attempts to capture security requirements of commercial applications.
‘Military’ and ‘Commercial’ are shorthand for different ways of using computers. This
model has emphasis on integrity:
Internal consistency: properties of the internal state of a system
External consistency: relation of the internal state of a system to the outside world
QUESTION 205:
Which of the following is a straightforward approach that provides access rights to
subjects for objects?
A. Access Matrix model
B. Take-Grant Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Biba Model
Answer: A
“The access matrix is a straightforward approach that provides access rights to subjects for
objects. Access rights are of the type read, write, and execute. A subject is an active entity that is
seeking rights to a resource or object. A subject can be a person, a program, or a process. An
object is a passive entity, such as a file or a storage resource.” Pg 272 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide:
Gold Edition.
QUESTION 206:
What is called the type of access control where there are pairs of elements that have the
least upper bound of values and greatest lower bound of values?
A. Mandatory model
B. Discretionary model
C. Lattice model
D. Rule model
Answer: C
Lattice-based access control provides an upper bound and lower bound of access capabilities for
every subject and object relationship.
Pg 156 Shon Harris All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide
QUESTION 207:
Which access control would a lattice-based access control be an example of?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Discretionary access control
C. Non-discretionary access control
D. Rule-based access control
Answer: C
“Lattice-based access control is a variation of nondiscretionary access controls. Lattice-based
controls define upper and lower bounds of access for every relationship between object and
subject. These boundaries can be arbitrary, but they usually follow the military or corporate
security label levels.
Subjects under lattice-based access controls are said to have the least upper bound and the
greatest lower bound of access to labeled objects based on their assigned lattice position.”
Pg. 16 Tittel: CISSP Prep Guide
QUESTION 208:
Who developed one of the first mathematical models of a multilevel-security computer
system?
A. Diffie Hillman
B. Clark and Wilson
C. Bell and LaPadula
D. Gasser and Lipner
Answer: C
QUESTION 209:
Which of the following was the first mathematical model of multilevel security policy?
A. Biba
B. Take-Grant
C. Bell-La Padula
D. Clark Wilson
Answer: C
“In the 1970’s, the U.S. military used time-sharing mainframe systems and was concerned about
these systems and leakage of classified information. The Bell-LaPadula model was developed to
address these concerns. It was the first mathematical model of a multilevel security policy used
to define the concept of a secure state machine and modes of access and outline rules of access.”
Pg 212 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 210:
Which security model allows the data custodian to grant access privileges to other users?
A. Mandatory
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Discretionary
D. Clark-Wilson
Answer: C
” Discretionary Access Control. The subject has authority, within certain limitations, to specify
what objects are accessible.” -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 46
QUESTION 211:
What is one issue NOT addressed by the Bell-LaPadula model?
A. Information flow control
B. Security levels
C. Covert channels
D. Access modes
Answer: C
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
CISSP
As with any model, the Bell-LaPadula model has some weaknesses. These are the major ones.
The model considers normal channels of the information exchange and does not address covert
channels. -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 275-276
QUESTION 212:
Which one of the following access control models associates every resource and every user of a resource with
one of an ordered set of classes?
A. Take-Grant model
B. Biba model
C. Lattice model
D. Clark-Wilson model
Answer: C
With a lattice model you first have to define a set of security classes that can be assigned to users or
objects…After
you have defined set of security classes, you define a set flow operations showing when information can flow
from
one class to another – Roberta Bragg Cissp Certification Training Guide (que) pg 23
QUESTION 213:
What scheme includes the requirement that the system maintain the separation of duty
requirement expressed in the access control triples?
A. Bella
B. Lattice
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Bell-LaPadula
Answer: C
Explanation:
Separation of duty is necessarily determined by conditions external to the computer
system. The Clark-Wilson scheme includes the requirement that the system maintain the
separation of duty requirement expressed in the access control triples. Enforcement is
on a per-user basis, using the user ID from the access control triple.
QUESTION 214:
The access matrix model consists of which of the following parts? (Choose all that apply)
A. A function that returns an objects type.
B. A list of subjects.
C. A list of objects.
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
The access matrix model consists of four major parts:
A list of objects
A list of subjects
A function T that returns an object’s type
The matrix itself, with the objects making the columns and the subjects making the rows
Note: This question seems to confuse access control matrix, Harris, 3rd Ed, p 169 with
access control types, Ibid, p 188ff
“An access control matrix is a table of subjects and objects indicating what actions …
subjects can take upon … objects”, Harris, 3rd Ed, p 169.
It would be right if item “A” was “a function that returned an access right”
QUESTION 215:
The access matrix model has which of the following common implementations?
A. Access control lists and capabilities.
B. Access control lists.
C. Capabilities.
D. Access control list and availability.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The two most used implementations are access control lists and capabilities. Access
control lists are achieved by placing on each object a list of users and their
associated rights to that object.
QUESTION 216:
The lattice-based model aims at protecting against:
A. Illegal attributes.
B. None of the choices.
C. Illegal information flow among the entities.
D. Illegal access rights
Answer: C
Explanation:
The lattice-based model aims at protecting against illegal information flow among the
entities. One security class is given to each entity in the system. A flow relation
among the security classes is defined to denote that information in one class can flow
into another class.
QUESTION 217:
Which of the following are the components of the Chinese wall model?
A. Conflict if interest.
B. All of the choices.
C. Subject
D. Company Datasets.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The model has the following component:
COMPONENT EXAMPLE
Subject Analyst
Object Data item for a single client
Company Datasets Give for each company its own company dataset
Conflict of interest classes Give for each object companies that have a conflict of
interest
Labels Company dataset + conflict of interest class
Sanitized information No access restriction
QUESTION 218:
Enforcing minimum privileges for general system users can be easily achieved through the
use of:
A. TSTEC
B. RBAC
C. TBAC
D. IPSEC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ensuring least privilege requires identifying what the user’s job is, determining the
minimum set of privileges required to perform that job, and restricting the user to a
domain with those privileges and nothing more. By denying to subjects transactions that
are not necessary for the performance of their duties, those denied privileges couldn’t
be used to circumvent the organizational security policy. Although the concept of least
privilege currently exists within the context of the TCSEC, requirements restrict those
privileges of the system administrator. Through the use of RBAC, enforced minimum
privileges for general system users can be easily achieved.
QUESTION 219:
What is necessary for a subject to have write access to an object in a Multi-Level Security
Policy?
A. The subject’s sensitivity label must dominate the object’s sensitivity label
B. The subject’s sensitivity label subordinates the object’s sensitivity label
C. The subject’s sensitivity label is subordinated by the object’s sensitivity label
D. The subject’s sensitivity label is dominated by the object’s sensitivity label
Answer: D
Reference: ”
“The Bell-LaPadula model has a simple security rule, which means that a subject cannot
read data from a higher level (no read up). The *-property rule means that a subject
cannot write to an object at a lower level (no write down).” – Shon Harris, “CISSP
All-in-One Exam Guide”, 3rd Ed, p 327. Therefore the object must be at the same or
higher level.
“The Bell-LaPadula model is an example of a multilevel security modelThe
Bell-LaPadula model is an example of a multilevel security model…” – Shon Harris,
“CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide”, 3rd Ed, p 298.
Simple security property. A subject can read an object if the access of the class of the
subject dominates the access class of the object. Thus, a subject can read down but
cannot read up.” Pg 105 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP Exam
QUESTION 220:
Which of the following security modes of operation involved the highest risk?
A. Compartmented Security Mode
B. Multilevel Security Mode
C. System-High Security Mode
D. Dedicated Security Mode
Answer: B
“Security Modes
In a secure environment, information systems are configured to process information in one of
four security modes. These modes are set out by the Department of Defense as follows:
Systems running compartmental security mode may process two or more types of
compartmented information. All system users must have an appropriate clearance to access all
information processed by the system but do not necessarily have a need to know all of the
information in the system. Compartments are subcategories or compartments within the different
classification levels and extreme care is taken to preserve the information within the different
compartments. The system may be classified at the Secret level but contain five different
compartments, all classified Secret. If a user has only the need to know about two of the five
different compartments to do their job, that user can access the system but can only access the
two compartments. Compartmented systems are usually dedicated systems for each specific
compartment to prevent the chance of any errors, because compartmentalization is the most
secret of all the secrets.
Systems running in the dedicated security mode are authorized to process only a specific
classification level at a time, and all system users must have clearance and a need to know that
information.
Systems running in multilevel security mode are authorized to process information at more than
one level of security even when all system users do not have appropriate clearances or a need to
know for all information processed by the system.
Systems running in system-high security mode are authorized to process only information that
all system users are cleared to read and to have a valid need to know. These systems are not
trusted to maintain separation between security levels, and all information processed by these
systems must be handled as if it were classified at the same level as the most highly classified
information processed by the system.”
Pg. 234 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide
QUESTION 221:
Controlled Security Mode is also known as:
A. Multilevel Security Mode
B. Partitioned Security Mode
C. Dedicated Security Mode
D. System-high Security Mode
Answer: A
Reference: pg 264 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 222:
The unauthorized mixing of data of one sensitivity level and need-to-know with data of a
lower sensitivity level, or different need-to-know, is called data
A. Contamination
B. Seepage
C. Aggregation
D. Commingling
Answer: A ?
WOW if you are reading these comments then you know I have disagreed with a bunch of the
original answers!Well here is another.The original was Seepage.I think it is Contamination.
“The intermixing of data at different sensitivity and need-to-know levels.The lower-level
data is said to be contaminated by the higher-level data; thus contaminating
(higher-level) data might
not receive the required level of protection”-Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold
edition) pg 890
QUESTION 223:
Which one of the following should be employed to protect data against undetected
corruption?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Encryption
C. Authentication
D. Integrity
Answer: D
QUESTION 224:
Which of the following is a communication path that is not protected by the system’s
normal security mechanisms?
A. A trusted path
B. A protection domain
C. A covert channel
D. A maintenance hook
Answer: C
QUESTION 225:
A channel within a computer system or network that is designed for the authorized
transfer of information is identified as a(n)?
A. Covert channel
B. Overt channel
C. Opened channel
D. Closed channel
Answer: B
“An overt channel is a channel of communication that was developed specifically for
communication purposes. Processes should be communicating through overt channels, not covert
channels.” Pg 237 Shon Harris: All-In-One CISSP Certification Guide.
QUESTION 226:
Covert channel is a communication channel that can be used for:
A. Hardening the system.
B. Violating the security policy.
C. Protecting the DMZ.
D. Strengthening the security policy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Covert channel is a communication channel that allows transfer of information in a
manner that violates the system’s security policy.
QUESTION 227:
What is an indirect way to transmit information with no explicit reading of confidential
information?
A. Covert channels
B. Backdoor
C. Timing channels
D. Overt channels
Answer: A
Explanation:
Covert channels: indirect ways for transmitting information with no explicit reading of
confidential information. This kind of difficulties induced some researchers to
re-think from scratch the whole problem of guaranteeing security in computer systems.
QUESTION 228:
Which one of the following describes a covert timing channel?
A. Modulated to carry an unintended information signal that can only be detected by special,
sensitive receivers.
B. Used by a supervisor to monitor the productivity of a user without their knowledge.
C. Provides the timing trigger to activate a malicious program disguised as a legitimate function.
D. Allows one process to signal information to another by modulating its own use of system
resources.
Answer: D
A covert channel in which one process signals information to another by modulating its own use
of system resources (for example, CPU time) in such a way that this manipulation affects the real
response time observed by the second process. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification
Guide pg 929
QUESTION 229:
Covert channel analysis is required for
A. Systems processing Top Secret or classified information.
B. A Trusted Computer Base with a level of trust B2 or above.
C. A system that can be monitored in a supervisor state.
D. Systems that use exposed communication links.
Answer: B
Table 6.6 Standards Comparison
B2 Structured Protection (covert channel, device labels, subject sensitivity labels, trusted path,
trusted facility management, configuration management) F4+E4 EAL5 – Roberta Bragg CISSP
Certification Training Guide (que) pg 370
QUESTION 230:
In multi-processing systems, which one of the following lacks mandatory controls and is
NORMALLY AVOIDED for communication?
A. Storage channels
B. Covert channels
C. Timing channels
D. Object channels
Answer: B
Covert channel – A communication path that enables a process to transmit information in a way
that violates the system’s security policy.- Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg
929
QUESTION 231:
What security risk does a covert channel create?
A. A process can signal information to another process.
B. It bypasses the reference monitor functions.
C. A user can send data to another user.
D. Data can be disclosed by inference.
Answer: B
The risk is not that a process can signal another process. The risk is that the signaling
bypasses the reference monitor functions
(ie the communication is not screened by the security kernel that implements the
reference monitor).
QUESTION 232:
What is the essential difference between a self-audit and an independent audit?
A. Tools used
B. Results
C. Objectivity
D. Competence
Answer: C
QUESTION 233:
What is called the formal acceptance of the adequacy of a system’s overall security by the
management?
A. Certification
B. Acceptance
C. Accreditation
D. Evaluation
Answer: C
QUESTION 234:
FIPS-140 is a standard for the security of:
A. Cryptographic service providers
B. Smartcards
C. Hardware and software cryptographic modules
D. Hardware security modules
Answer: C
QUESTION 235:
Which of the following will you consider as the MOST secure way of authentication?
A. Biometric
B. Password
C. Token
D. Ticket Granting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Biometric authentication systems take advantage of an individual’s unique physical
characteristics in order to authenticate that person’s identity. Various forms of
biometric authentication include face, voice, eye, hand, signature, and fingerprint,
each have their own advantages and disadvantages. When combined with the use of a PIN
it can provide two factors authentication.
QUESTION 236:
In biometric identification systems, at the beginning, it was soon apparent that truly
positive identification could only be based on physical attributes of a person. This raised
the necessicity of answering 2 questions:
A. what was the sex of a person and his age
B. what part of the body to be used and how to accomplish identification to be viable
C. what was the age of a person and his income level
D. what was the tone of the voice of a person and his habits
Answer: B
QUESTION 237:
What is called the percentage of invalid subjects that are falsely accepted?
A. False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error
B. False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error
C. Crossover Error Rate (CER)
D. True Acceptance Rate (TAR) or Type III error
Answer: B
QUESTION 238:
Which of the following biometrics devices has the highs Crossover Error Rate (CER)?
A. Iris scan
B. Hang Geometry
C. Voice pattern
D. Fingerprints
Answer: C
QUESTION 239:
Which of the following biometric parameters are better suited for authentication use over a
long period of time?
A. Iris pattern
B. Voice pattern
C. Signature dynamics
D. Retina pattern
Answer: A
QUESTION 240:
Which one of the following is the MOST critical characteristic of a biometrics system?
A. Acceptability
B. Accuracy
C. Throughput
D. Reliability
Answer: B
We don’t agree with the original answer, which was throughput. Granted throughput is vital but
Krutz lists accuracy is most important.
In addition to the accuracy of the biometric systems, there are OTHER factors that must also be
considered. These factors include the enrollment time, the throughput rate, and acceptability.
-Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 51
QUESTION 241:
Which of the following biometric devices has the lowest user acceptance level?
A. Voice recognition
B. Fingerprint scan
C. Hand geometry
D. Signature recognition
Answer: B
QUESTION 242:
Biometric performance is most commonly measured in terms of:
A. FRR and FAR
B. FAC and ERR
C. IER and FAR
D. FRR and GIC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Biometric performance is most commonly measured in two ways: False Rejection Rate
(FRR), and False Acceptance Rate (FAR). The FRR is the probability that you are not
authenticated to access your account. A strict definition states that the FRR is the
probability that a mated comparison (i.e. 2 biometric samples of the same finger)
incorrectly determines that there is no match.
QUESTION 243:
What is the most critical characteristic of a biometric identifying system?
A. Perceived intrusiveness
B. Storage requirements
C. Accuracy
D. Reliability
Answer: C
QUESTION 244:
Which of the following biometric characteristics cannot be used to uniquely authenticate
an individual’s identity?
A. Retina scans
B. Iris scans
C. Palm scans
D. Skin scans
Answer: D
Biometrics:
Fingerprints
Palm Scan
Hand Geometry
Retina Scan
Iris Scan
Signature Dynamics
Keyboard Dynamic
Voice Print
Facial Scan
Hand Topology
Pg. 128-130 Shon Harris All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide
QUESTION 245:
In biometric identification systems, at the beginning, it was soon apparent that truly
positive identification could only be based on physical attributes of a person. This raised
the necessicity of answering 2 questions:
A. What was the sex of a person and his age
B. what part of body to be used and how to accomplish identification to be viable
C. what was the age of a person and his income level
D. what was the tone of the voice of a person and his habits
Answer: B
QUESTION 246:
You are comparing biometric systems. Security is the top priority. A low ________ is most
important in this regard.
A. FAR
B. FRR
C. MTBF
D. ERR
Answer: A
Explanation:
When comparing biometric systems, a low false acceptance rate is most important when
security is the priority. Whereas, a low false rejection rate is most important when
convenience is the priority. All biometric implementations balance these two criteria.
Some systems use very high FAR’s such as 1 in 300. This means that the likelihood that
the system will accept someone other than the enrolled user is 1 in 300. However, the
likelihood that the system will reject the enrolled user (its FRR) is very low, giving
them ease of use, but with low security. Most fingerprint systems should be able to run
with FARs of 1 in 10,000 or better.
QUESTION 247:
Almost all types of detection permit a system’s sensitivity to be increased or decreased
during an inspection process. To have a valid measure of the system performance:
A. The CER is used.
B. the FRR is used
C. the FAR is used
D. none of the above choices is correct
Answer: A
“When a biometric system reject an authorized individual, it is called a Type 1 error. When the
system accepts impostors who should be rejected, it is called a Type II error. The goal is to
obtain low numbers for each type of error. When comparing different biometric systems, many
different variables are used, but one of the most important variables is the crossover error rate
(CER). This rating is stated in a percentage and represents the point at which the false rejection
rate equals the false acceptance rate. This rating is the most important measurement when
determining the system’s accuracy.” Pg 113 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 248:
The quality of finger prints is crucial to maintain the necessary:
A. FRR
B. ERR and FAR
C. FAR
D. FRR and FAR
Answer: D
Explanation:
Another factor that must be taken into account when determining the necessary FAR and
FRR for your organization is the actual quality of the fingerprints in your user
population. ABC’s experience with several thousand users, and the experience of its
customers, indicates that a percentage of the populations do not have fingerprints of
sufficient quality to allow for authentication of the individual. Approximately 2.5% of
employees fall into this group in the general office worker population. For these
users, a smart card token with password authentication is recommended.
QUESTION 249:
By requiring the user to use more than one finger to authenticate, you can:
A. Provide statistical improvements in EAR.
B. Provide statistical improvements in MTBF.
C. Provide statistical improvements in FRR.
D. Provide statistical improvements in ERR.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statistical improvements in false rejection rates can also be achieved by requiring the
user to use more than one finger to authenticate. Such techniques are referred to as
flexible verification.
QUESTION 250:
Which of the following is being considered as the most reliable kind of personal
identification?
A. Token
B. Finger print
C. Password
D. Ticket Granting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Every person’s fingerprint is unique and is a feature that stays with the person
throughout his/her life. This makes the fingerprint the most reliable kind of personal
identification because it cannot be forgotten, misplaced, or stolen. Fingerprint
authorization is potentially the most affordable and convenient method of verifying a
person’s identity.
QUESTION 251:
Which of the following methods is more microscopic and will analyze the direction of the
ridges of the fingerprints for matching?
A. None of the choices.
B. Flow direct
C. Ridge matching
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
CISSP
D. Minutia matching
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are two approaches for capturing the fingerprint image for matching: minutia
matching and global pattern matching. Minutia matching is a more microscopic approach
that analyzes the features of the fingerprint, such as the location and direction of
the ridges, for matching. The only problem with this approach is that it is difficult
to extract the minutiae points accurately if the fingerprint is in some way distorted.
The more macroscopic approach is global pattern matching where the flow of the ridges
is compared at all locations between a pair of fingerprint images; however, this can be
affected by the direction that the image is rotated.
QUESTION 252:
Which of the following are the types of eye scan in use today?
A. Retinal scans and body scans.
B. Retinal scans and iris scans.
C. Retinal scans and reflective scans.
D. Reflective scans and iris scans.
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two types of eye scan in use today for authentication purposes: retinal scans
and iris scans. Retinal Scan technology maps the capillary pattern of the retina, a
thin (1/50th inch) nerve on the back of the eye. To enroll, a minimum of five scans is
required, which takes 45 seconds. The subject must keep his head and eye motionless
within 1/2″ of the device, focusing on a small rotating point of green light. 320 – 400
points of reference are captured and stored in a 35-byte field, ensuring the measure is
accurate with a negligible false rejection rate.
This compares to 30-70 points of reference for a finger scan. Unfortunately a retinal
scan is considerably more intrusive than an iris scans and many people are hesitant to
use the device [Retina-scan]. In addition a significant number of people may be unable
to perform a successful enrolment, and there exist degenerative diseases of the retina
that alter the scan results over time. Despite these disadvantages, there are several
successful implementations of this technology [Retina-scan].
QUESTION 253:
Which of the following eye scan methods is considered to be more intrusive?
A. Iris scans
B. Retinal scans
C. Body scans
D. Reflective scans
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two types of eye scan in use today for authentication purposes: retinal scans
and iris scans. Retinal Scan technology maps the capillary pattern of the retina, a
thin (1/50th inch) nerve on the back of the eye. To enroll, a minimum of five scans is
required, which takes 45 seconds. The subject must keep his head and eye motionless
within 1/2″ of the device, focusing on a small rotating point of green light. 320 – 400
points of reference are captured and stored in a 35-byte field, ensuring the measure is
accurate with a negligible false rejection rate.
This compares to 30-70 points of reference for a finger scan. Unfortunately a retinal
scan is considerably more intrusive than an iris scans and many people are hesitant to
use the device [Retina-scan]. In addition a significant number of people may be unable
to perform a successful enrolment, and there exist degenerative diseases of the retina
that alter the scan results over time. Despite these disadvantages, there are several
successful implementations of this technology [Retina-scan].
QUESTION 254:
Which of the following offers greater accuracy then the others?
A. Facial recognition
B. Iris scanning
C. Finger scanning
D. Voice recognition
Answer: B
Explanation:
Iris scanning offers greater accuracy than finger scanning, voice or facial
recognition, hand geometry or keystroke analysis. It is safer and less invasive than
retinal scanning, an important legal consideration [Nuger]. Any company thinking of
using biometrics would do well to ensure that they comply with existing privacy laws.
QUESTION 255:
In addition to the accuracy of the biometric systems, there are other factors that must also
be considered:
A. These factors include the enrollment time and the throughput rate, but not acceptability.
B. These factors do not include the enrollment time, the throughput rate, and acceptability.
C. These factors include the enrollment time, the throughput rate, and acceptability.
D. These factors include the enrollment time, but not the throughput rate, neither the
acceptability.
Answer: C
In addition to the accuracy of the biometric systems, there are OTHER factors that must also be
considered. These factors include the enrollment time, the throughput rate, and acceptability.
-Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 51
QUESTION 256:
What physical characteristics does a retinal scan biometric device measure?
A. The amount of light reaching the retina
B. The amount of light reflected by the retina
C. The size, curvature, and shape of the retina
D. The pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye
Answer: D
QUESTION 257:
Type II errors occur when which of the following biometric system rates is high?
A. False accept rate
B. False reject rate
C. Crossover error rate
D. Speed and throughput rate
Answer: A
There are three main performance issues in biometrics. These measures are as follows:
False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type 1 Error. The percentage of valid subjects that are falsely
rejected.
False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type 2 Error. The percentage of invalid subjects that are falsely
accepted.
Crossover Error Rate (CER). The percent in which the False Rejection Rate equals the False
Acceptance Rate.
pg 38 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide
QUESTION 258:
Which of the following are the valid categories of hand geometry scanning?
A. Electrical and image-edge detection.
B. Mechanical and image-edge detection.
C. Logical and image-edge detection.
D. Mechanical and image-ridge detection.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Hand geometry reading (scanning) devices usually fall into one of two categories:
mechanical or image-edge detection. Both methods are used to measure specific
characteristics of a person’s hand such as length of fingers and thumb, widths, and
depth.
QUESTION 259:
In the world of keystroke dynamics, what represents the amount of time you hold down in
a particular key?
A. Dwell time
B. Flight time
C. Dynamic time
D. Systems time
Answer: A
Explanation:
Keystroke dynamics looks at the way a person types at a keyboard. Specifically,
keyboard dynamics measures two distinct variables: “dwell time” which is the amount of
time you hold down a particular key and “flight time” which is the amount of time it
takes a person to switch between keys. Keyboard dynamics systems can measure one’s
keyboard input up to 1000 times per second.
QUESTION 260:
In the world of keystroke dynamics, what represents the amount of time it takes a person
to switch between keys?
A. Dynamic time
B. Flight time
C. Dwell time
D. Systems time.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Keystroke dynamics looks at the way a person types at a keyboard. Specifically,
keyboard dynamics measures two distinct variables: “dwell time” which is the amount of
time you hold down a particular key and “flight time” which is the amount of time it
takes a person to switch between keys. Keyboard dynamics systems can measure one’s
keyboard input up to 1000 times per second.
QUESTION 261:
Which of the following are the benefits of Keystroke dynamics?
A. Low cost
B. Unintrusive device
C. Transparent
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Keystroke dynamics is behavioral in nature. It works well with users that can “touch
type”. Key advantages in applying keyboard dynamics are that the device used in this
system, the keyboard, is unintrusive and does not detract from one’s work. Enrollment
as well as identification goes undetected by the user. Another inherent benefit to
using keystroke dynamics as an identification device is that the hardware (i.e.
keyboard) is inexpensive. Currently, plug-in boards, built-in hardware and firmware, or
software can represent keystroke dynamics systems.
QUESTION 262:
DSV as an identification method check against users:
A. Fingerprints
B. Signature
C. Keystrokes
D. Facial expression
Answer: B
Explanation:
Signature identification, also known as Dynamic Signature Verification (DSV), is
another natural fit in the world of biometrics since identification through one’s
signature occurs during many everyday transactions. Any process or transaction that
requires an individual’s signature is a prime contender for signature identification.
QUESTION 263:
Signature identification systems analyze what areas of an individual’s signature?
A. All of the choices EXCEPT the signing rate.
B. The specific features of the signature.
C. The specific features of the process of signing one’s signature.
D. The signature rate.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Signature identification systems analyze two different areas of an individual’s
signature: the specific features of the signature and specific features of the process
of signing one’s signature. Features that are taken into account and measured include
speed, pen pressure, directions, stroke length, and the points in time when the pen is
lifted from the paper.
QUESTION 264:
What are the advantages to using voice identification?
A. All of the choices.
B. Timesaving
C. Reliability
D. Flexibility
Answer: A
Explanation:
The many advantages to using voice identification include:
Considered a “natural” biometric technology
Provides eyes and hands-free operation
Reliability
Flexibility
Timesaving data input
Eliminate spelling errors
Improved data accuracy
QUESTION 265:
What are the methods used in the process of facial identification?
A. None of the choices.
B. Detection and recognition.
C. Scanning and recognition.
D. Detection and scanning.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The process of facial identification incorporates two significant methods: detection
and recognition.
QUESTION 266:
In the process of facial identification, the basic underlying recognition technology of facial
identification involves:
A. Eigenfeatures of eigenfaces.
B. Scanning and recognition.
C. Detection and scanning.
D. None of the choices.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Recognition is comparing the captured face to other faces that have been saved and
stored in a database. The basic underlying recognition technology of facial feature
identification involves either eigenfeatures (facial metrics) or eigenfaces. The German
word “eigen” refers to recursive mathematics used to analyze unique facial
characteristics.
QUESTION 267:
What is known as the probability that you are not authenticated to access your account?
A. ERR
B. FRR
C. MTBF
D. FAR
Answer: B
Explanation:
Biometric performance is most commonly measured in two ways: False Rejection Rate
(FRR), and False Acceptance Rate (FAR). The FRR is the probability that you are not
authenticated to access your account. A strict definition states that the FRR is the
probability that a mated comparison (i.e. 2 biometric samples of the same finger)
incorrectly determines that there is no match.
QUESTION 268:
What is known as the chance that someone other than you is granted access to your
account?
A. ERR
B. FAR
C. FRR
D. MTBF
Answer: B
Explanation:
The FAR is the chance that someone other than you is granted access to your account, in
other words, the probability that a non-mated comparison (i.e. two biometric samples of
different fingers) match. FAR and FRR numbers are generally expressed in terms of
probability.
QUESTION 269:
What is typically used to illustrate the comparative strengths and weaknesses of each
biometric technology?
A. Decipher Chart
B. Zephyr Chart
C. Cipher Chart
D. Zapper Chart
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Zephyr Chart illustrates the comparative strengths and weaknesses of each biometric
technology. The eight primary biometric technologies are listed around the outer
border, and for each technology the four major evaluation criteria are ranked from
outside (better) to inside (worse). Looking at dynamic signature verification (DSV)
will illustrate how the Zephyr Chart works.
QUESTION 270:
In terms of the order of effectiveness, which of the following technologies is the most
affective?
A. Fingerprint
B. Iris scan
C. Keystroke pattern
D. Retina scan
Answer: B
Explanation:
The order of effectiveness has not changed for a few years. It is still the same today
as it was three years ago. The list below present them from most effective to list
effective:
Iris scan
Retina scan
Fingerprint
Hand geometry
Voice pattern
Keystroke pattern
Signature
QUESTION 271:
In terms of the order of effectiveness, which of the following technologies is the least
effective?
A. Voice pattern
B. Signature
C. Keystroke pattern
D. Hand geometry
Answer: B
Explanation:
The order of effectiveness has not changed for a few years. It is still the same today
as it was three years ago. The list below present them from most effective to list
effective:
Iris scan
Retina scan
Fingerprint
Hand geometry
Voice pattern
Keystroke pattern
Signature
QUESTION 272:
In terms of the order of acceptance, which of the following technologies is the MOST
accepted?
A. Hand geometry
B. Keystroke pattern
C. Voice Pattern
D. Signature
Answer: C
Explanation:
The order of acceptance has slightly changed in the past years. It was Iris that was
the most accepted method three years ago but today we have Voice Pattern that is by far
the most accepted. Here is the list from most accepted first to least accepted at the
bottom of the list:
Voice Pattern
Keystroke pattern
Signature
Hand geometry
Handprint
Fingerprint
Iris
Retina pattern
QUESTION 273:
In terms of the order of acceptance, which of the following technologies is the LEAST
accepted?
A. Fingerprint
B. Iris
C. Handprint
D. Retina patterns
Answer: D
Explanation:
The order of acceptance has slightly changed in the past years. It was Iris that was
the most accepted method three years ago but today we have Voice Pattern that is by far
the most accepted. Here is the list from most accepted first to least accepted at the
bottom of the list:
Voice Pattern
Keystroke pattern
Signature
Hand geometry
Handprint
Fingerprint
Iris
Retina pattern
QUESTION 274:
Which of the following biometric characteristics cannot be used to uniquely authenticate
an individual’s identity?
A. Retina scans
B. Iris scans
C. Palm scans
D. Skin scans
Answer: D
QUESTION 275:
Which of the following is true of two-factor authentication?
A. It uses the RSA public-key signature based algorithm on integers with large prime factors
B. It requires two measurements of hand geometry
C. It does not use single sign-on technology
D. It relies on two independent proofs of identity
Answer: D
QUESTION 276:
What is Kerberos?
A. A three-headed dog from Egyptian Mythology
B. A trusted third-party authentication protocol
C. A security model
D. A remote authentication dial in user server
Answer: B
QUESTION 277:
Which of the following is true about Kerberos?
A. It utilized public key cryptography
B. It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text
C. It depends upon symmetric ciphers
D. It is a second party authentication system
Answer: C
“Kerberos relies upon symmetric key cryptography, specifically Data Encryption Standard
(DES), and provides end-to-end security for authentication traffic between the client and the Key
Distribution Center (KDC).” Pg. 15 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide
QUESTION 278:
Kerberos depends upon what encryption method?
A. Public Key cryptography
B. Private Key cryptography
C. El Gamal cryptography
D. Blowfish cryptography
Answer: B
Kerberos uses symmetric key cryptography and provides end-to-end security, meaning that
information being passed between a user and a service is protected without the need of an
intermediate component. Although it allows the use of passwords for authentication, it was
designed specifically to eliminate the need for transmitting passwords over the network. Most
Kerberos implementations work with cryptography keys and shared secret keys (private keys)
instead of passwords. Pg 148 Shon Harris All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide
QUESTION 279:
The primary service provided by Kerberos is which of the following?
A. non-repudiation
B. confidentiality
C. authentication
D. authorization
Answer: C
QUESTION 280:
Which of the following are authentication server systems with operational modes that can
implement SS0?
A. Kerberos, SESAME and KryptoKnight
B. SESAME, KryptoKnight and NetSP
C. Kerberos and SESAME
D. Kerberos, SESAME, KryptoKnight, and NetSP
Answer: D
“Scripts, directory services, thin clients, Kerberos, SESAME, NetSP, scripted access, and
KrtyptoKnight are examples of SSO mechanisms.”
Pg. 14 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide Second Edition
QUESTION 281:
Which of the following is a trusted, third party authentication protocol that was developed
under Project Athena at MIT?
A. Kerberos
B. SESAME
C. KryptoKnight
D. NetSP
Answer: A
“Kerberos is an authentication protocol and was designed in the mid-1980s as part of MIT’s
Project Athena.” Pg 129 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
QUESTION 282:
Which of the following is true about Kerberos?
A. It utilizes public key cryptography
B. It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text.
C. It depends upon symmetric ciphers
D. It is a second party authentication system
Answer: C
QUESTION 283:
One of the differences between Kerberos and KryptoKnight is that there is:
A. a mapped relationship among the parties takes place
B. there is a peer-to-peer relationship among the parties with themselves.
C. there is no peer-to-peer relationship among the parties and the KDC
D. a peer-to-peer relationship among the parties and the KDC
Answer: D
“Krytponight
The IBM Kryptonight system provides authentication, SSO, and key distribution services. It was
designed to support computers with widely varying computational capabilities. KryptoKnight
uses a trusted Key Distribution Center (KDC) that knows the secret key of each party. One of the
differences between kerberos and KrytoKnight is that there is a peer-to-peer relationship among
the parties and the KDC.”
Pg. 58 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 284:
Which of the following is the MOST secure network access control procedure to adopt when using a callback
device?
A. The user enters a userid and PIN, and the device calls back the telephone number that corresponds to the
userid.
B. The user enters a userid, PIN, and telephone number, and the device calls back the telephone number
entered.
C. The user enters the telephone number, and the device verifies that the number exists in its database before
calling back.
D. The user enters the telephone number, and the device responds with a challenge.
Answer: A
Explanation: Usually a request for a username and password takes place and the NAS may
hang up the call in order to call the user back at a predefined phone number. This is a
security activity that is used to try and ensure that only authenticated users are given
access to the network and it reverse the long distance charges back to the
company…However, this security measure can be compromised if someone implements call
forwarding. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 463
QUESTION 285:
What is called the access protection system that limits connections by calling back the
number of a previously authorized location?
A. Sendback system
B. Callback forward systems
C. Callback systems
D. Sendback forward systems
Answer: C
“Callback systems provide access protection by calling back the number of a previously
authorized location, but this control can be compromised by call forwarding.” Pg 48 Krutz:
CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.
QUESTION 286:
A confidential number to verify a user’s identity is called a:
A. PIN
B. userid
C. password
D. challenge
Answer: A
QUESTION 287:
How are memory cards and smart cards different?
A. Memory cards normally hold more memory than smart cards
B. Smart cards provide a two-factor authentication whereas memory cards don’t
C. Memory cards have no processing power
D. Only smart cards can be used for ATM cards
Answer: C
“The main difference between memory cards and smart cards is the processing power. A
memory card holds information, but does not process information. A smart card has the
necessary hardware and logic to actually process information.” Pg 121 Shon Harris CISSP
All-In-One Exam Guide
QUESTION 288:
They in form of credit card-size memory cards or smart cards, or those resembling small
calculators, are used to supply static and dynamic passwords are called:
A. Tickets
B. Tokens
C. Token passing networks
D. Coupons
Answer: B
QUESTION 289:
Tokens, as a way to identify users are subject to what type of error?
A. Token error
B. Decrypt error
C. Human error
D. Encrypt error
Answer: C
Explanation:
Tokens are a fantastic way of ensuring the identity of a user. However, you must
remember that no system is immune to “human error”. If the token is lost with it’s pin
written on it, or if it were loaned with the corresponding pin it would allow for
masquerading. This is one of the greatest threats that you have with tokens.
QUESTION 290:
Which of the following factors may render a token based solution unusable?
A. Token length
B. Card size
C. Battery lifespan
D. None of the choices.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Another limitation of some of the tokens is their battery lifespan. For example, in the
case of SecurID you have a token that has a battery that will last from 1 to 3 years
depending on the type of token you acquired. Some token companies such as Cryptocard
have introduced tokens that have a small battery compartment allowing you to change the
battery when it is discharged.
QUESTION 291:
Memory only cards work based on:
A. Something you have.
B. Something you know.
C. None of the choices.
D. Something you know and something you have.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Memory Only Card – This type of card is the most common card. It has a magnetic stripe
on the back. These cards can offer two-factor authentication, the card itself
(something you have) and the PIN (something you know). Everyone is familiar with the
use of an ATM (Automated Teller Machine) card. These memory cards are very easy to
counterfeit. There was a case in Montreal where a storeowner would swipe the card
through for the transaction; he hould then swipe it through a card reader to get a
copy while a small hidden camera was registering the PIN as the user was punching it
on the pad. This scheme was quickly identified as the victims had one point in common;
they all visited the same store.
QUESTION 292:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a memory only card?
A. High cost to develop.
B. High cost to operate.
C. Physically infeasible.
D. Easy to counterfeit.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Memory Only Card – This type of card is the most common card. It has a magnetic stripe
on the back. These cards can offer two-factor authentication, the card itself
(something you have) and the PIN (something you know). Everyone is familiar with the
use of an ATM (Automated Teller Machine) card. These memory cards are very easy to
counterfeit. There was a case in Montreal where a storeowner would swipe the card
through for the transaction; he hould then swipe it through a card reader to get a
copy, while a small hidden camera was registering the PIN as the user was punching it
on the pad. This scheme was quickly identified as the victims had one point in common;
they all visited the same store.
QUESTION 293:
The word “smart card” has meanings of:
A. Personal identity token containing IC-s.
B. Processor IC card.
C. IC card with ISO 7816 interface.
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The word “smart card” has four different meanings (in order of usage frequency):
IC card with ISO 7816 interface
Processor IC card
Personal identity token containing IC-s
Integrated Circuit(s) Card is ad ID-1 type (specified in ISO 7810) card, into which has
been inserted one or more integrated circuits. [ISO 7816]
QUESTION 294:
Processor card contains which of the following components?
A. Memory and hard drive.
B. Memory and flash.
C. Memory and processor.
D. Cache and processor.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Processor cards contain memory and a processor. They have remarkable data processing
capabilities. Very often the data processing power is used to encrypt/decrypt data,
which makes this type of card a very unique personal identification token. Data
processing also permits dynamic storage management, which enables the realization of
flexible multifunctional cards.
QUESTION 295:
Which of the following offers advantages such as the ability to use stronger passwords,
easier password administration, and faster resource access?
A. Smart cards
B. Single Sign-on (SSO)
C. Kerberos
D. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Answer: B
QUESTION 296:
What is the main concern with single sign-on?
A. Maximum unauthorized access would be possible if a password is disclosed
B. The security administrator’s workload would increase
C. The users’ password would be to hard to remember
D. User access rights would be increased
Answer: A
QUESTION 297:
Which of the following describes the major disadvantage of many SSO implementations?
A. Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on they can freely roam the
network resources without any restrictions
B. The initial logon process is cumbersome to discourage potential intruders
C. Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, they only need to logon
to some applications.
D. Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, he has to logout from all
other systems
Answer: A
Reference: “The major disadvantage of many SSO implementations is that once a user obtains
access to the system through the initial logon, the user can freely roam the network resources
without any restrictions.” pg 53 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
QUESTION 298:
Which of the following addresses cumbersome situations where users need to log on
multiple times to access different resources?
A. Single Sign-On (SSO) systems
B. Dual Sign-On (DSO) systems
C. Double Sign-On (DS0) systems
D. Triple Sign-On (TSO) systems
Answer: A
QUESTION 299:
A method for a user to identify and present credentials only once to a system is known as:
A. SEC
B. IPSec
C. SSO
D. SSL
Answer: C
Explanation:
Single Sign-On (SSO) – This is a method for a users to identify and present credentials
only once to a system. Information needed for future system access to resources is
forwarded by the initial System.
BENEFITS
More efficient user log-on process
Users select stronger passwords
Inactivity timeout and attempt thresholds applied uniformly closer to user point of
entry
Improved timely disabling of all network/computer accounts for terminated users
QUESTION 300:
Which of the following correctly describe the features of SSO?
A. More efficient log-on.
B. More costly to administer.
C. More costly to setup.
D. More key exchanging involved.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Single Sign-On (SSO) – This is a method for a users to identify and present credentials
only once to a system. Information needed for future system access to resources is
forwarded by the initial System.
BENEFITS
More efficient user log-on process
Users select stronger passwords
Inactivity timeout and attempt thresholds applied uniformly closer to user point of
entry
Improved timely disabling of all network/computer accounts for terminated users
QUESTION 301:
What is the PRIMARY advantage of using a separate authentication server (e.g., Remote Access Dial-In
User System, Terminal Access Controller Access Control System) to authenticate dial-in users?
A. Single user logons are easier to manage and audit.
B. Each session has a unique (one-time) password assigned to it.
C. Audit and access information are not kept on the access server.
D. Call-back is very difficult to defeat.
Answer: C
Explanation:
TACACS integrates the authentication and authorization processes. XTACACS keeps the authentication,
authorization and accounting processes separate. TACACS+ improves XTACACS by adding two-factor
authentication. – Ed Tittle CISSP Study Guide (sybex) pg 745
QUESTION 302:
Within the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Reference Model, authentication addresses the need for a
network entity to verify both
A. The identity of a remote communicating entity and the authenticity of the source of the data that are
received.
B. The authenticity of a remote communicating entity and the path through which communications are received.
C. The location of a remote communicating entity and the path through which communications are received.
D. The identity of a remote communicating entity and the level of security of the path through which data are
received.
Answer: A
Explanation:
OSI model needs to know the source of the data and that it is who it says it is. Path it the data take is not cared
about
unless source routing is used. The level of security is not cared about inherently by the receiving node (in
general)
unless configured. A is the best option in this question.
QUESTION 303:
Which of the following is the most reliable authentication device?
A. Variable callback system
B. Smart card system
C. fixed callback system
D. Combination of variable and fixed callback system
Answer: B
QUESTION 304:
Which of the following are proprietarily implemented by CISCO?
A. RADIUS+
B. TACACS
C. XTACACS and TACACS+
D. RADIUS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco implemented an enhanced version of TACACS, known as XTACACS (extended
TACACS),
which was also compatible with TACACS. It allowed for UDP and TCP encoding. XTACACS
contained several improvements: It provided accounting functionality to track length of
login and which hosts a user connected to, and it also separated the authentication,
authorization, and accounting processes such that they could be independently
implemented. None of the three functions are mandatory. XTACACS is described in RFC
1492.
TACACS+ is the latest Cisco implementation. It is best described as XTACACS with
improved attribute control (authorization) and accounting.
QUESTION 305:
What is a protocol used for carrying authentication, authorization, and configuration
information between a Network Access Server and a shared Authentication Server?
A. IPSec
B. RADIUS
C. L2TP
D. PPTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
RADIUS is a protocol for carrying authentication, authorization, and configuration
information between a Network Access Server, which desires to authenticate its links
and a shared Authentication Server. RADIUS is a standard published in RFC2138 as
mentioned above.
QUESTION 306:
RADIUS is defined by which RFC?
A. 2168
B. 2148
C. 2138
D. 2158
Answer: C
Explanation:
RADIUS is a protocol for carrying authentication, authorization, and configuration
information between a Network Access Server, which desires to authenticate its links
and a shared Authentication Server. RADIUS is a standard published in RFC2138 as
mentioned above.
QUESTION 307:
In a RADIUS architecture, which of the following acts as a client?
A. A network Access Server.
B. None of the choices.
C. The end user.
D. The authentication server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Network Access Server (NAS) operates as a client of RADIUS. The client is responsible
for passing user information to designated RADIUS servers, and then acting on the
response, which is returned.
QUESTION 308:
In a RADIUS architecture, which of the following can ac as a proxy client?
A. The end user.
B. A Network Access Server.
C. The RADIUS authentication server.
D. None of the choices.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A RADIUS server can act as a proxy client to other RADIUS servers or other kinds of
authentication servers.
QUESTION 309:
Which of the following statements pertaining to RADIUS is incorrect?
A. A RADIUS server can act as a proxy server, forwarding client requests to other
authentication domains.
B. Most of RADIUS clients have a capability to query secondary RADIUS servers for
redundancy
C. Most RADIUS servers have built-in database connectivity for billing and reporting purposes
D. Most RADIUS servers can work with DIAMETER servers.
Answer: D
QUESTION 310:
Which of the following is the weakest authentication mechanism?
A. Passphrases
B. Passwords
C. One-time passwords
D. Token devices
Answer: B
QUESTION 311:
What is the PRIMARY use of a password?
A. Allow access to files
B. Identify the user
C. Authenticate the user
D. Segregate various user’s accesses
Answer: C
QUESTION 312:
Software generated passwords have what drawbacks?
A. Passwords are not easy to remember.
B. Password are too secure.
C. None of the choices.
D. Passwords are unbreakable.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Passwords generated by a software package or some operating systems. These password
generators are good at producing unique and hard to guess passwords, however you must
ensure that they are not so hard that people can’t remember them. If you force your
users to write their passwords down then you are defeating the purpose of having strong
password management.
QUESTION 313:
What are the valid types of one time password generator?
A. All of the choices.
B. Transaction synchronous
C. Synchronous/PIN synchronous
D. Asynchronous/PIN asynchronous
Answer: A
Explanation:
One-time Passwords are changed after every use. Handheld password generator (tokens) 3
basic types: Synchronous/PIN synchronous, Transaction synchronous, Asynchronous/PIN
asynchronous.
QUESTION 314:
Which of the following will you consider as most secure?
A. Password
B. One time password
C. Login phrase
D. Login ID
Answer: B
Explanation:
Each time the user logs in, the token generates a unique password that is synchronized
with the network server. If anyone tries to reuse this dynamic password, access is
denied, the event is logged and the network remains secure.
QUESTION 315:
What type of password makes use of two totally unrelated words?
A. Login phrase
B. One time password
C. Composition
D. Login ID
Answer: C
Explanation:
Usage of two totally unrelated words or a series of unrelated characters, such as
pizza!wood for example. Such a password is easy to remember but very hard to guess. It
would require a cracker quite a bit of time to do a brute force attack on a password
that is that long and that uses an extended character as well.
QUESTION 316:
Which of the following is the correct account policy you should follow?
A. All of the choices.
B. All active accounts must have a password.
C. All active accounts must have a long and complex pass phrase.
D. All inactive accounts must have a password.
Answer: B
Explanation:
All active accounts must have a password. Unless you are using an application or
service designed to be accessed without the need of a proper ID and password. Such
service must however be monitored by other means (not a recommended practicE.)
QUESTION 317:
Which of the following are the advantages of using passphrase?
A. Difficult to crack using brute force.
B. Offers numerous characters.
C. Easier to remember.
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The use of passphrases is a good way of having very strong passwords. A passphrase is
easier to remember, it offers numerous characters, and it is almost impossible to crack
using brute force with today’s processing power. An example of a passphrase could be:
“Once upon a time in the CISSP world”
QUESTION 318:
Which of the following are the correct guidelines of password deployment?
A. Passwords must be masked.
B. All of the choices.
C. Password must have a minimum of 8 characters.
D. Password must contain a mix of both alphabetic and non-alphabetic characters.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Passwords must not be displayed in plain text while logging on. Passwords must be
masked. Password must have a minimum of 8 characters. Password must contain a mix of
both alphabetic and non-alphabetic characters. Passwords must be kept private, e.g. not
shared, coded into programs, or written down.
QUESTION 319:
Why would a 16 characters password not desirable?
A. Hard to remember
B. Offers numerous characters.
C. Difficult to crack using brute force.
D. All of the choices.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the password is too hard to memorize, the user will actually write it down, which
is totally insecure and unacceptable.
QUESTION 320:
Which of the following is NOT a good password deployment guideline?
A. Passwords must not be he same as user id or login id.
B. Password aging must be enforced on all systems.
C. Password must be easy to memorize.
D. Passwords must be changed at least once every 60 days, depending on your environment.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Passwords must be changed at least once every 60 days (depending on your environment).
Password aging or expiration must be enforced on all systems. Upon password expiration,
if the password is not changed, only three grace logins must be allowed then the
account must be disable until reset by an administrator or the help desk. Password
reuse is not allowed (rotating passwords).
QUESTION 321:
Routing password can be restricted by the use of:
A. Password age
B. Password history
C. Complex password
D. All of the choices
Answer: B
Explanation:
Passwords must be changed at least once every 60 days (depending on your environment).
Password aging or expiration must be enforced on all systems. Upon password expiration,
if the password is not changed, only three grace logins must be allowed then the
account must be disable until reset by an administrator or the help desk. Password
reuse is not allowed (rotating passwords).
QUESTION 322:
What should you do immediately if the root password is compromised?
A. Change the root password.
B. Change all passwords.
C. Increase the value of password age.
D. Decrease the value of password history.
Answer: B
Explanation:
All passwords must be changed if the root password is compromised or disclosure is
suspected. (This is a separate case; the optimal solution would be to reload the
compromised computer. A computer that has been downgraded can never be upgraded to
higher security level)
QUESTION 323:
Which of the following is the most secure way to distribute password?
A. Employees must send in an email before obtaining a password.
B. Employees must show up in person and present proper identification before obtaining a
password.
C. Employees must send in a signed email before obtaining a password.
D. None of the choices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Employees must show up in person and present proper identification before obtaining a
new or changed password (depending on your policy). After three unsuccessful attempts
to enter a password, the account will be locked and only an administrator or the help
desk can reactivate the involved user ID.
QUESTION 324:
Which of the following does not apply to system-generated passwords?
A. Passwords are harder to remember for users
B. If the password-generating algorithm gets to be known, the entire system is in jeopardy
C. Passwords are more vulnerable to brute force and dictionary attacks.
D. Passwords are harder to guess for attackers
Answer: C
QUESTION 325:
Passwords can be required to change monthly, quarterly, or any other intervals:
A. depending on the criticality of the information needing protection
B. depending on the criticality of the information needing protection and the password’s
frequency of use
C. depending on the password’s frequency of use
D. not depending on the criticality of the information needing protection but depending on the
password’s frequency of use
Answer: B
QUESTION 326:
In SSL/TLS protocol, what kind of authentication is supported?
A. Peer-to-peer authentication
B. Only server authentication (optional)
C. Server authentication (mandatory) and client authentication (optional)
D. Role based authentication scheme
Answer: C
“The server sends a message back to the client indicating that a secure session needs to be
established, and the client sends it security parameters. The server compares those security
parameters to its own until it finds a match. This is the handshaking phase. The server
authenticates to the client by sending it a digital certificate, and if the client decides to trust the
server the process continues. The server can require the client to send over a digital certificate
for mutual authentication, but that is rare.”
Pg. 523 Shon Harris: All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide
QUESTION 327:
Which of the following correctly describe the difference between identification and
authentication?
A. Authentication is a means to verify who you are, while identification is what you are
authorized to perform.
B. Identification is a means to verify who you are, while authentication is what you are
authorized to perform.
C. Identification is another name of authentication.
D. Identification is the child process of authentication.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Identification is a means to verify who you are. Authentication is what you are
authorized to perform, access, or do. User identification enables accountability. It
enables you to trace activities to individual users that may be held responsible for
their actions. Identification usually takes the form of Logon ID or User ID. Some of
the Logon ID characteristics are: they must be unique, not shared, and usually non
descriptive of job function.
QUESTION 328:
Identification establishes:
A. Authentication
B. Accountability
C. Authorization
D. None of the choices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Identification is a means to verify who you are. Authentication is what you are
authorized to perform, access, or do. User identification enables accountability. It
enables you to trace activities to individual users that may be held responsible for
their actions. Identification usually takes the form of Logon ID or User ID. Some of
the Logon ID characteristics are: they must be unique, not shared, and usually non
descriptive of job function.
QUESTION 329:
Identification usually takes the form of:
A. Login ID.
B. User password.
C. None of the choices.
D. Passphrase
Answer: A
Explanation:
Identification is a means to verify who you are. Authentication is what you are
authorized to perform, access, or do. User identification enables accountability. It
enables you to trace activities to individual users that may be held responsible for
their actions. Identification usually takes the form of Logon ID or User ID. Some of
the Logon ID characteristics are: they must be unique, not shared, and usually non
descriptive of job function
QUESTION 330:
What is called the act of a user professing an identity to a system, usually in the form of a
log-on ID?
A. Authentication
B. Identification
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B
“Identification is the act of a user professing an identity to a system, usually in the form of a
logon ID to the system.” Pg 49 Krutz The CISSP Prep Guide.
“Identification describes a method of ensuring that a subject (user, program, or process) is the
entity it claims to be. Identification can be provided with the use of a username or account
number. To be properly authenticated, the subject is usually required to provide a second piece
to the credential set. This piece could be a password, passphrase, cryptographic key, personal
identification number (PIN), anatomical attribute, or token.” Pg 110 Shon Harris: All-in-One
CISSP Certification
QUESTION 331:
What is called the verification that the user’s claimed identity is valid and is usually
implemented through a user password at log-on time?
A. Authentication
B. Identification
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality
Answer: A
QUESTION 332:
Identification and authentication are the keystones of most access control systems.
Identification establishes:
A. user accountability for the actions on the system
B. top management accountability for the actions on the system
C. EDP department accountability for the actions of users on the system
D. authentication for actions on the system
Answer: A
QUESTION 333:
Which one of the following authentication mechanisms creates a problem for mobile users?
A. address-based mechanism
B. reusable password mechanism
C. one-time password mechanism
D. challenge response mechanism